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inysia [295]
2 years ago
7

A painter charges $15.83 per hour, plus an additional amount for the supplies. If he made $190.90 on a job where he worked

Mathematics
2 answers:
Delvig [45]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

80.90

Step-by-step explanation:

15.83 ×7 =110.81

190.90-110.81= 80.09

wariber [46]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$80.09 spent on supplies

Step-by-step explanation:

$15.83×7= $110.81 made for seven hours

subtract from total cost

$190.90-$110.81= $80.09 for supplies

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Find the prime factorization of 24. Make sure to show all of your work.
miss Akunina [59]

Answer:

2^3*3

Step-by-step explanation:

So the prime factorization of 24 is 24 = 2 · 2 · 2 · 3 = 23 · 3.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
1. Writing an equation for an exponential function by
Naya [18.7K]

Answer: 1) t(n)=0.6(2)^n

2) f(x)=10(5)^x

Step-by-step explanation:

1) Let the function that shows the thickness of the paper after n folds,

t(n) = ab^n         ---------(1)

Since, According to the question,

Initially the thickness of the paper = 0.6

That is, at n = 0, t(0) = 0.6

By equation (1),

0.6 = a(b)^0\implies 0.6 = a

Hence the function that shows the given situation,

t(n) = 0.6 b^n       -----------(2)

Again when we fold the paper the thickness of the paper will be doubled.

Thus, at n = 1, t(1) = 1.2

By equation (2),

1.2 = 0.6 b^1\implies 2 = b

Thus, the complete function is,

t(n) = 0.6 (2)^n    

2) Let the function that is passing through the points (-2, 2/5) and (-1,2),

f(x) = ab^x         ---------(1)

For f(x) = 2, x = -1

By equation (1),

2= ab^{-1}       ---------(2)

Also, For f(x) = 2/5, x = -2

Again, By equation (1),

\frac{2}{5}= a(b)^{-2}

\implies \frac{2}{5}=ab^{-1}b^{-1}=2b^{-1}

\implies \frac{2}{5}=\frac{2}{b}

\implies 2b=10

\implies b = 5

By substituting this value in equation (2),

We get, a = 10

Hence, from equation (1), the function that is passing through the points (-2, 2/5) and (-1,2),

f(x) = 10(5)^x

5 0
3 years ago
Can someone help me with this one ​
Mkey [24]

Answer:

The answer is 1/10. Mark as brainliest ^-^

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
SOMEONE HELP,FAST!!!!!!Solve.then round to the nearest hundred.23.70 divided by 1.8
Daniel [21]

Answer: 0

Step-by-step explanation:

23.70/1.8 = 13.16666....

Rounding to the nearest hundred is 0, because 13 is less than 50.

8 0
3 years ago
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