I believe the equation is
![4 \sqrt[4]{2x} + 6 \sqrt[4]{2x}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=4%20%5Csqrt%5B4%5D%7B2x%7D%20%2B%206%20%20%5Csqrt%5B4%5D%7B2x%7D%20)
In this case, you would simplify it by adding them together.
![4 \sqrt[4]{2x} + 6 \sqrt[4]{2x}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=4%20%5Csqrt%5B4%5D%7B2x%7D%20%2B%206%20%20%5Csqrt%5B4%5D%7B2x%7D%20)
=
![10 \sqrt[4]{2x}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=10%20%20%5Csqrt%5B4%5D%7B2x%7D%20)
And can even be changed to an exponential equation:
Answer:
m=1/3
equation y=1/3x+10
Step-by-step explanation:
Find the rise and run.
1. -6--9=run=3
2. 8-7=rise=1
<h3>
Answer: x + y = 2</h3>
====================================================
Work Shown:
y - 6 = -(x + 4)
y - 6 = -x - 4
y = -x - 4 + 6 ..... adding 6 to both sides
y = -x + 2
y + x = 2 .... adding x to both sides
x + y = 2
The equation is in standard form Ax+By = C, with A = 1, B = 1, and C = 2.
Answer:
0.03333
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time.
Chance for any machine is thus equaly likely = 1/3
The rate of producing a faulty pin from Machine 1 be 10%, from Machine 2 be 20% andfrom Machine3 be 5%.
Machine I II III total
Faulty 0.10 0.20 0.05
Prob 0.3333 0.3333 0.3334 1
Faulty*prob 0.03333 0.06666 0.16665 0.26664
Thus probability that a produced pin will be faulty and it will be from the firstmachine
= 0.03333