Answer:
y=5x-2
Step-by-step explanation:
A) After any given year the amount of money would be: [(1000*.04)x]+1000
and x stands for the number of years.
B) The interest is 4%.
C) There would be $3,480.00 after 4 years.
Hello from MrBillDoesMath!
Answer:
x = 19, y = 36
Discussion:
x + 3 = 22 (*)
2x - y = 2 (**)
Subtract 3 from both sides of (*)
x + 3 -3 = 22 = 3 = 19 =>
x = 19
Substitute x= 19 in (**)
2(19) - y = 2 =>
38 - y = 2 => (add y to both sides)
38 -y + y = 2 + y =>
38 = 2 + y => (subtract 2 from both sides)
38 -2 = 2 -2 + y =>
36 = y
Regards,
MrB
P.S. I'll be on vacation from Friday, Dec 22 to Jan 2, 2019. Have a Great New Year!
Answer: -5
Step-by-step explanation: 2 + -11 = -9 and subtract -4 from it since it’s the sum of 2 + -6. -9 - -4 is -9 + 4 so -5
To solve this problem, we make use of the Binomial
Probability equation which is mathematically expressed as:
P = [n! / r! (n – r)!] p^r * q^(n – r)
where,
n = the total number of gadgets = 4
r = number of samples = 1 and 2 (since not more than 2)
p = probability of success of getting a defective gadget
q = probability of failure = 1 – p
Calculating for p:
p = 5 / 15 = 0.33
So,
q = 1 – 0.33 = 0.67
Calculating for P when r = 1:
P (r = 1) = [4! / 1! 3!] 0.33^1 * 0.67^3
P (r = 1) = 0.3970
Calculating for P when r = 2:
P (r = 2) = [4! / 2! 2!] 0.33^2 * 0.67^2
P (r = 2) = 0.2933
Therefore the total probability of not getting more than
2 defective gadgets is:
P = 0.3970 + 0.2933
P = 0.6903
Hence there is a 0.6903 chance or 69.03% probability of
not getting more than 2 defective gadgets.
