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Olegator [25]
3 years ago
8

Predetermined Overhead Rate, Overhead Variances, Journal Entries Craig Company uses a predetermined overhead rate to assign over

head to jobs. Because Craig's production is machine intensive, overhead is applied on the basis of machine hours. The expected overhead for the year was $4,910,400, and the practical level of activity is 372,000 machine hours. During the year, Craig used 379,000 machine hours and incurred actual overhead costs of $4,922,800. Craig also had the following balances of applied overhead in its accounts:
Work-in-process inventory $620,800
Finished goods inventory 627,200
Cost of goods sold 1,952,000

Required:

a. Compute a predetermined overhead rate for Craig. Round your answer to the nearest cent.
b. Compute the overhead variance, and label it as under- or overapplied.
c. Assuming the overhead variance is immaterial, prepare the journal entry to dispose of the variance at the end of the year.
d. Assuming the overhead variance is material, prepare the journal entry that appropriately disposes of the overhead variance at the end of the year.
Business
1 answer:
Ipatiy [6.2K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Very Good Answer.. By study this Indian great Pilot...

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Feldspar Inc. is considering the capital structure for a new division. Management has been given the following cost information:
34kurt

Answer:

Option 4

Explanation:

In this question ,we have to compute the WACC which is shown below:

= Weightage of debt × cost of debt × ( 1- tax rate) + (Weightage of  common stock) × (cost of common stock)

For Option 1, it would be

= (0.3 × 10%) × ( 1 - 40%) + (0.7 × 12.5%)

= 1.8% + 8.75%

= 10.55%

For Option 2, it would be

= (0.4 × 10.5%) × ( 1 - 40%) + (0.6 × 13%)

= 2.52% + 7.8%

= 10.32%

For Option 3, it would be

= (0.5 × 11%) × ( 1 - 40%) + (0.5 × 13.5%)

= 3.3% + 6.75%

= 10.05%

For Option 4, it would be

= (0.6 × 11.7%) × ( 1 - 40%) + (0.4 × 14.2%)

= 4.212% + 5.68%

= 9.89%

For Option 5, it would be

= (0.7 × 13%) × ( 1 - 40%) + (0.3 × 15.5%)

= 5.46% + 4.65%

= 10.11%

So based on this, the management should accept option 4 as it derives the best debt asset ratio

The weightage of equity would be come

= 1 - weightage of debt

8 0
3 years ago
A number of positioning strategies might be employed in developing a promotional program. David Aaker and J. Gary Shansby discus
BaLLatris [955]

where is the answer child

7 0
4 years ago
Gross domestic product is calculated by summing up.
Scilla [17]

Answer:

Summing up all of the money spent by consumers, businesses, and government in a given period. It may also be calculated by adding up all of the money received by all the participants in the economy

3 0
3 years ago
cpnsider capm the risk free rate is ^5 and the expected return on the market is 18% what is the expected return on a stock with
borishaifa [10]

Answer:

Expected return = 21.9 %

Explanation:

<em>The capital asset pricing model is a risk-based model. Here, the return on equity is dependent on the level of reaction of the the equity to changes in the return on a market portfolio. These changes are captured as systematic risk. The magnitude by which a stock is affected by systematic risk is measured by beta</em>.  

Under CAPM, Ke= Rf + β(Rm-Rf)

Rf-risk-free rate (long-term i.e 10 year treasury bill rate), β= Beta, Rm= Return on market., Ke- Return on equity (cost of equity)  

This model can be used to work out the cost of equity as follows:  

Ke= Rf + β (Rm-Rf)  

Rf- 5%, β= 1.3, Rm- 18, E(r)- ?  

Ke =  5% + 1.3×(18-5)%=21.9 %  

Ke = 21.9 %

Expected return = 21.9 %

5 0
4 years ago
Question 3(Multiple Choice Worth 4 points)
jekas [21]

Answer:

C. Futures

Explanation:

To check if this is correct click here:

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Hope this helps!

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