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yaroslaw [1]
3 years ago
11

Which investment data is best modeled by an exponential function?

Mathematics
2 answers:
TiliK225 [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Answer is C.

Step-by-step explanation:

Please like and mark brainliest, thanks :)

Ratling [72]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

you answer would be c please mark brainliest

Step-by-step explanation:

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A 20% off coupon is always a better deal than $5.00 off. Question 5 options: True False
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False, There are situations where 5.00$ off would be better than 20% off.
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____ more than 3455 is two hundred seventy -eight thousand five hundred eighty three​
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278, 538 is the answer
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One sixth plus negative seven ninths
OLga [1]

Answer:

-11/18

Step-by-step explanation:

1. find the common denominator. this should be 18

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4. now subtract these two fractions.

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8 0
2 years ago
Couple has got 5 children , what is the probability of have 3girls and 2 boys ?
Delicious77 [7]
5 children so you have 2^5=32 possibilities to "assign" genders
P(3 girls):
how many possibilities are there to "assign" the 3 girl-genders to the 5 children? the first girl has 5 possibilities then the next 4, 3 -> 5*4*3=60
but these possibilities include orders of assigned genders, while children 1-5 might differ the gender "girl" is always the same so we have the remove the orderings of the 3 girl-gender assignments which is 3*2*1=6
if we divide 60/6 we get 10 possibilities to have 3 girls, so what is the resulting chance? the 10 possibilities divided by the total 32 possibilities: 10/32=5/16=P(3 girls)=P(2 boys)

this is a bit of lengthy way of saying "use the binomial coefficient" equation/explaining it a bit which is (n!)/(k!(n-k)!) with n=5, k=3:
5*4*3*2*1/((3*2*1)*(2*1))=
5*4*3*2/(3*2*2)=
5*4*3*2/(3*4)=
5*2=
10 possibilities again


P(girls>=4)=P(boys<=1)=P(boys=1)+P(boys=0)
(or P(girls=4)+P(girls=5))

P(boys=0) is the easy case: simply multiply the chance of getting a girl 5 times: (1/2)^5=1/32
P(boys=1)= again the binomial coefficient with n=5 and k=1:
5*4*3*2*1/((1)*(4*3*2*1))=
5*4*3*2/(4*3*2)=
5 possibilities
so the P(boys=0)=1 possibility + P(boys=1)=5 possibilities totals to 6 possibilities
again the chance is the 6 possibilities divided by all 32 possibilities: 6/32=3/16

P(alternate gender starting with boy): when thinking about the possibilities then there is only a single way to build that order: bgbgb, so one possibility
knowing there is only one way we already know P(alternate...)=1/32 by again dividing by the total amount of possibilities
the alternative way would be to multiply P(boy)*P(girl)*P(boy)*P(girl)*P(boy)=(1/2)^5= 1/32 again





5 0
4 years ago
mm not really a question but here to check up on people who are rlly stressed rn , how are you feeling mentally? you also might
NikAS [45]
I’m ok thinks for checking up on me and I did drink water I have been stressed a lot with school lately. And yes we can be friends I would love to be study buddies. How are you? And have a nice day!
5 0
3 years ago
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