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Mathematics

2 answers:

Sedbober [7]2 years ago

5 0

I believe it’s 9x+1

Add all the equations/side values together

skelet666 [1.2K]2 years ago

3 0

9x+1 is the answer for this problem

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We have n = 100 many random variables Xi ’s, where the Xi ’s are independent and identically distributed Bernoulli random variab

777dan777 [17]

Answer:

(a) The distribution of $X=\sum\limits^{n}_{i=1}{X_{i}}$ is a Binomial distribution.

(b) The sampling distribution of the sample mean will be approximately normal.

Step-by-step explanation:

It is provided that random variables $X_{i}$ are independent and identically distributed Bernoulli random variables with p = 0.50.

The random sample selected is of size, n = 100.

(a)

Theorem:

Let $X_{1},\ X_{2},\ X_{3},...\ X_{n}$ be independent Bernoulli random variables, each with parameter p, then the sum of of thee random variables, $X=X_{1}+X_{2}+X_{3}...+X_{n}$ is a Binomial random variable with parameter n and p.

Thus, the distribution of $X=\sum\limits^{n}_{i=1}{X_{i}}$ is a Binomial distribution.

(b)

According to the Central Limit Theorem if we have an unknown population with mean μ and standard deviation σ and appropriately huge random samples (n > 30) are selected from the population with replacement, then the distribution of the sample mean will be approximately normally distributed.

The sample size is large, i.e. n = 100 > 30.

So, the sampling distribution of the sample mean will be approximately normal.

The mean of the distribution of sample mean is given by,

$\mu_{\bar x}=\mu=p=0.50$