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Kisachek [45]
2 years ago
13

Factorise -75ab² - 15ac

Mathematics
2 answers:
babunello [35]2 years ago
6 0

Step-by-step explanation:

THE ANSWERS ARE

1 B

2A

3C

4A

6B

krok68 [10]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

9) 51 × 10⁻⁵ = 0.00051

10) Cash price = #54,000 × (1 - 0.125) = #47,250

11) -40·p·q÷(-2)² = -10·p·q

12) 0.003 × 0.045 = 1.35 × 10⁻⁴

13) N40°W = 320°

14) The base diameter of the cylinder = √(4 × (700×π cm³/7)/π) = 20 cm

15) The LCM of 2·x²·y, 3·x·y² is 12·x²·y²

16) 636,000 = 6.36 × 10⁵

17) 1/3·π·r²·h₁ = π·r²·h₂

h₂/h₁ = 1/3·π·r²/( π·r²) = 1/3

h₂/12 =  1/3

h₂ = 12/3 = 4 cm, the height of the cylinder = 4 cm

18) The angle = 180 + 45 = 225°

19) The total surface area = 22/7×14²/4 +  22/7 ×14 × 20 = 1034 cm²

20) The number is 58/2 = 29.

Step-by-step explanation:

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A box contains 5 red and 5 blue marbles. Two marbles are withdrawn randomly. If they are the same color, then you win $1.10; if
topjm [15]

Answer:

a) The expected value is \frac{-1}{15}

b) The variance is  \frac{49}{45}

Step-by-step explanation:

We can assume that both marbles are withdrawn at the same time. We will define the probability as follows

#events of interest/total number of events.

We have 10 marbles in total. The number of different ways in which we can withdrawn 2 marbles out of 10 is \binom{10}{2}.

Consider the case in which we choose two of the same color. That is, out of 5, we pick 2. The different ways of choosing 2 out of 5 is \binom{5}{2}. Since we have 2 colors, we can either choose 2 of them blue or 2 of the red, so the total number of ways of choosing is just the double.

Consider the case in which we choose one of each color. Then, out of 5 we pick 1. So, the total number of ways in which we pick 1 of each color is \binom{5}{1}\cdot \binom{5}{1}. So, we define the following probabilities.

Probability of winning: \frac{2\binom{5}{2}}{\binom{10}{2}}= \frac{4}{9}

Probability of losing \frac{(\binom{5}{1})^2}{\binom{10}{2}}\frac{5}{9}

Let X be the expected value of the amount you can win. Then,

E(X) = 1.10*probability of winning - 1 probability of losing =1.10\cdot  \frac{4}{9}-\frac{5}{9}=\frac{-1}{15}

Consider the expected value of the square of the amount you can win, Then

E(X^2) = (1.10^2)*probability of winning + probability of losing =1.10^2\cdot  \frac{4}{9}+\frac{5}{9}=\frac{82}{75}

We will use the following formula

Var(X) = E(X^2)-E(X)^2

Thus

Var(X) = \frac{82}{75}-(\frac{-1}{15})^2 = \frac{49}{45}

7 0
3 years ago
Could someone help?<br> I’m confused
andre [41]
He will only need to sell one
3 0
3 years ago
From these regression results: coefficients standard error t stat intercept 5.6 2.0 2.8 adv 4.9 0.6 9.0 price – 0.5 0.1 – 5.9 su
Margaret [11]
Your so smart you should go to high school
5 0
3 years ago
What are the mensure of 1 angle and 2 angle? Show ur work or explain
STatiana [176]

Answer:

angle 1 = 105º

angle 2  = 75º

Step-by-step explanation:

angle 2  = 75º

corresponding angle to the 75º angle

angle 1 = 105º

it's supplementary to angle 2

180 - 75 = 105

6 0
3 years ago
Is (-1,2) a solution of the graphed system if inequalities ​
Zigmanuir [339]

Yes (I guess)

(-1, 2) Lies on a line so im guessing it is...

7 0
2 years ago
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