Answer:
The solution is ![\frac{1}{10} * tan^{-1}[\frac{e^{2x}}{5} ] + C](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B10%7D%20%2A%20tan%5E%7B-1%7D%5B%5Cfrac%7Be%5E%7B2x%7D%7D%7B5%7D%20%5D%20%2B%20%20C)
Step-by-step explanation:
From the question
The function given is 
The indefinite integral is mathematically represented as

Now let 
=> 
=> 
So

![= \frac{1}{2} \frac{tan^{-1} [\frac{u}{5} ]}{5} + C](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%20%5Cfrac%7Btan%5E%7B-1%7D%20%5B%5Cfrac%7Bu%7D%7B5%7D%20%5D%7D%7B5%7D%20%20%2B%20%20C)
Now substituting for u
![\frac{1}{10} * tan^{-1}[\frac{e^{2x}}{5} ] + C](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B10%7D%20%2A%20tan%5E%7B-1%7D%5B%5Cfrac%7Be%5E%7B2x%7D%7D%7B5%7D%20%5D%20%2B%20%20C)
Answer:
$18,096 a year
Step-by-step explanation:
There are around 52 weeks in a year. You make $348 a week.
52 x 348 = $18,096
The answer is 0.03. Hope I help:)
The answer is c because the two numbers on a number line 16 will be greater then 10
The area of a circle is A = πr^2. We let A1 And A2 the areas of the circles and r1 and r2 the radius of each, respectivley.
A1 + A2 = 80π
Substitute the formula for the area,
π(r1)^2 + π (r2)^2 = 80π
From the statement, we know that r2=2(r1).
<span>π(r1)^2 + π (2 x r1)^2 = 80π
</span>We can cancel π, we will have
5 x (r1)^2 = 80
Thus,
r1 = 4 and r2 = 8