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Evgesh-ka [11]
3 years ago
8

NEED HELP ASAP! BRAINLIEST TO THE RIGHT ANSWER!

Mathematics
2 answers:
sveta [45]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:y=-3x-2

Step-by-step explanation:

kipiarov [429]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:sadness

Step-by-step explanation:

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4. Use Structure Explain why the sum x + X IS<br> equal to 2x instead of x2.
aleksklad [387]

Answer:

x + x = (1 + 1)x = 2x \\  \\ x \times x =  {x}^{1 + 1}  =  {x}^{2}

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4 years ago
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Which rule yields the dilation of the figure STUV centered at the origin?
Vsevolod [243]

I'm a little unsure about this one, but I believe that scale factor is the rule that yields dilution, as it specifies how the diluted figure is placed on the graphing plane.

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3 years ago
Which statement describes the cost to park as a unit price?
Lana71 [14]

The answer is C

hope this helps

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3 years ago
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Write the equation of the line in fully simplified slope-intercept form.
iren2701 [21]
Y=Mx+b

Rise / run between any two points = slope (m)
Where the line crosses the y axis is (yint) (b)

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Yint = -8

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6 0
3 years ago
a slitter assembly contains 48 blades five blades are selected at random and evaluated each day for sharpness if any dull blade
12345 [234]

Answer:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps.

This is what it's called dependent event probability, with the added condition that at least 1 out of 5 blades picked is dull, because from your selection of 5, you only need one defective to decide on replacing all.

So if you look at this from another perspective, you have only one event that makes it so you don't change the blades: that 5 out 5 blades picked are sharp. You also know that the probability of changing the blades plus the probability of not changing them is equal to 100%, because that involves all the events possible.

P(at least 1 dull blade out of 5)+Probability(no dull blades out of 5)=1

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

But the event of picking one blade is dependent of the previous picking, meaning there is no chance of picking the same blade twice.

So you have 38/48 on getting a sharp one on your first pick, then 37/47 (since you remove 1 sharp from the possibilities, and 1 from the whole lot), and so on.

Also since are consecutive events, you need to multiply the events.

The probability that the assembly is replaced the first day is:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-(\frac{38}{48}* \frac{37}{47} *\frac{36}{46}*\frac{35}{45}*\frac{34}{44})

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-0.2931

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

6 0
3 years ago
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