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GenaCL600 [577]
2 years ago
9

BOGO Inc. has two sequential processing departments, roasting and mixing. At the beginning of the month, the roasting department

had 3,080 units in inventory, 70% complete as to materials. During the month, the roasting department started 21,600 units. At the end of the month, the roasting department had 4,800 units in ending inventory, 80% complete as to materials. Cost information for the roasting department for the month follows:
Beginning work in process inventory (direct materials) $ 4,870
Direct materials added during the month 45,900
Using the FIFO method, assign direct materials costs to the roasting department’s output—specifically, the units transferred out to the mixing department and the units that remain in process in the roasting department at month-end. (Do not round intermediate calculations.)
Business
1 answer:
vagabundo [1.1K]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Direct material cost of units transferred out = $42,596

Cost of ending work in process inventory = $8,174

Explanation:

This can be done using the following 3 steps:

Step 1: Calculation of equivalent unit of production (EUP) of materials

Note: See the attached excel file for the calculation of equivalent unit of production (EUP) of materials.

From the attached excel file, we have:

Physical unit = 24,680

EUP-material = 21,564

Step 2: Calculation of cost per EUP of materials

Cost per EUP of materials = Direct materials added during the month / EUP-Materials = $49,900 / 21,564 = $2.13

Step 3: Assignment of direct materials cost to the units transferred out amd the ending WIP

Cost of materials added to complete the beginning WIP = 924 * $2.13 = $1,967

Cost of units started and transferred out = 16,800 * $2.13 = $35,760

Direct material cost of units transferred out = Direct material cost of beginning WIP + Cost of materials added to complete the beginning WIP + Cost of units started and transferred out = $4,870 + $1,967 + $35,760 = $42,596

Cost of ending work in process inventory = 3,840 * $2.13 = $8,174

Download xlsx
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Explanation:

Hi, first we need to establish the cash flow of the bond, so we can find the after tax cost of the bond. After we find the after tax cash flow of the bond, we must use the IRR function of MS Excel to find the semi-annual cost of this debt, but, all after tax debts should be presented in annual basis. Let me walk you through the process. First, let me show you how it should look.

Face Value      100  

price              101,4  

years                7 years  

Coupon                9%  

Coupon                4,5% semi-annually  

tax                      30%  

   

Per       Cash Flow After Tax  

0                 101,4 101,4  

1                   -4,5 -3,15  

2                   -4,5 -3,15  

3                   -4,5 -3,15  

4                   -4,5 -3,15  

5                   -4,5 -3,15  

6                   -4,5 -3,15  

7                   -4,5 -3,15  

8                   -4,5 -3,15  

9                  -4,5 -3,15  

10                  -4,5 -3,15  

11                  -4,5 -3,15  

12                  -4,5 -3,15  

13                  -4,5 -3,15  

14               -104,5 -73,15  

   

Cost of Debt 1,04% semi-annually

Cost of Debt 2,09% annually

Ok, now, as you can see, there are 14 periods, that is because the coupon is paid semi-annually, the way to find the cash flow (I mean, the bond´s coupon) is:

Coupon (semi-annual)=(Face Value)x\frac{0.09}{2} =4.5

At the end (period 14), we need to add the face value and the coupon, that is $100+$4.5=$104.5

Now, to find the value of the third column (after-tax cost), we do the following.

After-tax-Cost=Couponx(1-taxes)=4.5(1-0.3)=3.15\\

Now, consider this, you are receiving 101.4 for every 100 of debt, that means that you are receiving more money than the emission value, and paying interests over 100 instead of 101.4, that is why we have to use the IRR excel function to find out the semi-annual cost of debt. That is, 1.04%.

Now, to make this an effective annual rate, we calculate it like this.

EffectiveAnnualRate=(1+semi-annual Rate)^{\frac{1}{2} }  -1=(1+0.0104)^{\frac{1}{2} } -1=0.0209

Finally, the after-tax cost of this debt is = 2.09%

Best of luck.

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