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Vilka [71]
3 years ago
13

A cost that cannot be avoided or changed because it arises from a past decision, and is irrelevant to future decisions, is calle

d a(n):_____________.
a. Uncontrollable cost.
b. Incremental cost.
c. Opportunity cost.
d. Out-of-pocket cost.
e. Sunk cost.
Business
1 answer:
Ronch [10]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

e. Sunk cost.

Explanation:

As per the given statement, the best appropriate option is sunk cost. As the sunk cost deals with the past cost which is already incurred in the past and it cannot be changed or avoided, neither it can be recovered. Example - Rent expense.

Plus it does not affect the future decisions that means it is irrelevant for decision-making aspects.

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Leaders who function primarily by clarifying role and task requirements to accomplish established goals exhibit a(n) ________ st
aksik [14]

Answer: transactional

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
When Joe screens job applicants to ensure that he hires the most qualified candidate, he is performing the human resource functi
saul85 [17]

Answer:

Candidate Screening

Explanation:

Candidate Screening process is one of the human resource function through which the top managers works for selecting the best candidate's applications out of all those applications received. It involves screening that is going through the candidates resumes and cover letters.

It is a method through which skimming is done that is rejection of the unrequired candidates is done. Under such a method the candidate's screening is done keeping in mind the qualifications and experience of the candidate fit for the required post in the organization.

It is a negative process because it involves rejection of the candidates applications.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
2.) Which of the following is true? A. The convenience yield is always positive or zero. B. The convenience yield is always posi
charle [14.2K]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": The convenience yield is always positive or zero.

Explanation:

The convenience yield reflects the premium of possessing an asset instead of one of its derivates or contracts. This situation arises in front of inverted markets, where holding the asset itself may bring more profits than purchasing a derivate of the same asset.

<em>The convenience yield tends to be positive or zero because the prices of assets cannot fall below zero. In other words, they are not negative.</em>

7 0
3 years ago
Tiny went back to his office after the meeting and began to crunch the numbers on the rapid inflator. At a price of $10 per unit
Artist 52 [7]

<u>Solution and Explanation:</u>

<u> Part A </u>-   Inflatable divisions's Current Return on Investment = Yearly Earnings / Investment Cost * 100

There the Inflatable Division is Currently Earning $ 250,000 annually from an Asset base of $ 1,250,000

Therefore, ROI = 250000 / 1250000 * 100=20 \%

<u>Part B -   </u>Let the maximum variable cost be X.

Given that - 1. Selling Price per Unit = $10 , 2. No of Units to be produced = 40000 , 3. Annual Fixed Cost = $ 140000

Therefore ,   ROI = Current Earning + New Earning / Current Assets + New Assets

20% = 250000+[(10-\mathrm{X}) * 40000-\underline{140000}] / 1250000+100000

Solve for X getting, X = 6

Therefore maximum variable cost it can incur without change in current ROI is $ 6 per unit  

Resulting Contribution Margin per Unit = SP - VC = $10 minus $6 = $4 per unit

<u> part C -</u>   Minimum Transfer Lightning division Should charge

Given Information - Capacity of Lightning division is 150000 units and Utilized capacity is 135000 units. Therefore Spare capacity is 15000 units .Also Market Price of Product of Lightning division is $ 5 and Variable cost is $3 per unit.

So for the First 15000 units of Requirement of Inflatable division - Transfer Price should be Variable cost i.e $ 3 per unit because Lightning division has spare capacity in this.

For the next 25000 units of requirement of Inflatable division - Transfer Price should be Market Price i.e $ 5 per unit as Lightning division has to reduce is external sale.

Therefore Minimum TP = 15000 * 3+25000 * 5 / 40000=\$ 4.25 per Unit

<u>Part D -  </u>No, Here Tiny offers to transfer $4 ( $6 - $2 ) per unit to Lightning division. However  the minimum TP Lightning should get is 4.25 per unit and if less than this TP is offered by Tiny it will lead to loss in the Lightning Division.

3 0
3 years ago
Jack corp. Has a profit margin of 5.1 percent, total asset turnover of 2.3, and roe of 19.64 percent. What is this firm's debt-e
anygoal [31]

Answer: Jack Corp's D/E ratio is 0.67.

We follow these steps to arrive at the answer:

We begin with the DuPont Identity for Return on Equity (RoE)

RoE = Net Profit Margin * Asset turnover Ratio * Equity Multiplier

Substituting the values from the question in the DuPont identity we get,

0.1964 = 0.051 * 2.3 * Equity Multiplier

Equity Multiplier = \frac{0.1964}{0.051*2.3}

Equity Multiplier = 1.674339301&#10;

Equity Multiplier = \frac{Total Assets }{Equity}

So,

\frac{1}{Equity multiplier} =\frac{Equity}{Total Assets}

Substituting the value of equity multiplier in the formula above we get,

\frac{Equity}{Total Assets} = 0.597250509

Now,

\frac{Equity}{Total Assets} + \frac{Debt}{Total Assets} =1

So,

\frac{Debt }{Total Assets} = 1 - \frac{Equity}{Total Assets}

\frac{Debt }{Total Assets} = 1 - 0.597250509&#10;

\frac{Debt }{Total Assets} = 0.402749491&#10;

Now that we have the proportions of debt and equity to total assets, we can  find the Debt Equity (D/E) ratio as follows:

\frac{D}{E} = \frac{\frac{Debt}{Total Assets}}{\frac{Equity}{Total Assets}}

Substituting the values we get,

\frac{D}{E} = \frac{0.402749491&#10;}{0.597250509&#10;}

\frac{D}{E} = 0.674339301&#10;

3 0
3 years ago
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