Answer: 4.34
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Wednesday is 45 to 18.
Thursday is 55 to 22
Step-by-step explanation:
Wednesday: The original ratio was 5 to 2 And the info tells us that the new ratio is ? to 18. To find the first part we have to find how we got from 2 to 18. 2 * 9 = 18. So to find out the first part you do 5 * 9 = 45. We multiply 5 because Thats the original 1st part. We multiply 9 because that's how we got to 18 in the 2nd part. So the answer is 45 for Wednesday.
Thursday: The original ratio was 5 to 2 And the info tells us that the new ratio is 55 to ?. To find the first part we have to find how we got from 5 to 55. 5 * 11 = 55. So to find out the 2nd part you do 2 * 11 = 55. We multiply 2 because That's the original 2nd part. We multiply 11 because that's how we got to 55 in the 1st part. So the answer is 22 for Thursday.
This question has to do with making an approximation based on the diagram of the angle. Angle KLM is an obtuse angle meaning it is larger then 90° but is also less than 180°. The only choices that lie within this range are choices B and D. However, it is safe to assume that angle KLM is closer to 180° than to 90° based on the diagram, therefore the answer must be choice B.
I hope this helps.
Value
Depreciation is defined as the reduction in value of an
asset over time. In this case, value reduction is due to wear and tear of an
equipment (bicycle).
a. The depreciation value would simply be the difference
in initial and salvage value divided by time in years.
Depreciation = (Initial value – Salvage value) / Number
of years
b. Substituting the given values into the equation where:
Initial value = $1200
Salvage value = $940
Number of years = 10 months = 10/12 years
Calculating:
Depreciation = ($1200 - $940) / (10/12 years)
Depreciation = $312 / year
or
<span>Depreciation = $26 / month</span>
The first one is 63.9 and the second should be 116.1
