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malfutka [58]
3 years ago
5

Which of the following is an example of a quantitative variable?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Mashcka [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

D. the number of hours the veterinarian works a week

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PROMPT
fredd [130]
<span>1. Photo description: A picture of the Eiffel tower, to be stuck on a mat.
Dimensions (including units): 4 in x 6 in
2. Since 2x would be added to each dimension:
Length: 6 + 2x (inches)
Width: 4 + 2x (inches)
3. Area: A = LW = (6+2x)(4+2x) square inches
4. F: (6)(4) = 24, O: (6)(2x) = 12x, I: (2x)(4) = 8x, L: (2x)(2x) = 4x^2
Polynomial expression: Adding the FOIL terms up: 4x^2 + 20x + 24
5. The area should be in square inches, since we multiplied length (in inches) by width (in inches).
6. Multiply factors using the distribution method:
(6+2x)(4+2x) = 6(4+2x) + 2x(4+2x) = 24 + 12x + 8x + 4x^2 = 24 + 20x + 4x^2
This is identical to the expression in Part 4.
7. x: 24 + 20x + 4x^2
If x = 1.0 in: Area = 24 + 20(1) + 4(1)^2 = 48 in^2
If x = 2.0 in: Area = 24 + 20(2) + 4(2)^2 = 80 in^2
8. If a white mat costs $0.03 per square inch and a black mat costs $0.05 per square inch, determine the cost of each size of black and white mat.
x Total area of mat Cost of white mat Cost of black mat
1.0 in, A = 48 in^2, (0.03)(48) = $1.44, (0.05)(48) = $2.40
2.0 in, A = 80 in^2, (0.03)(80) = $2.40, (0.05)(80) = $4.00
9. The cheapest option would be the white mat with 1-in margins on all sides, which would cost $1.44. Without any further criteria on aesthetics or size limitations, this is the most viable option.</span>
5 0
3 years ago
The formula for the area of a circle is A=(pi)r^2<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=A%3D%5Cpi%20r%5E%7B2%7D" id="TexFormula1" tit
ivolga24 [154]

Answer:

i hope its right

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
The first four ionization energies in kj/mol of a certain second- row element are 900, 1757, 14,849, and 21,007. what is the lik
ki77a [65]

Answer:<em> Berylium (Be)</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

The <em>first ionisation energy</em> is the energy required to remove one mole of the outermost electrons from one mole of gaseous atoms.

<em />

<em> Second, third, and fourth ionisation</em> energies are the energies required to remove the succesive mole of electrons of the same atoms

Successive ionisation energies are larger because, <em>once you have removed the first electron you get a positive ion</em>. Removing an electron (which is a negative charge) from a positive ion is more difficult than removing it from the neutral atom. And removing an electron from an ion with 2⁺ or  3⁺ charges is increasingly difficult.

When you find a large jump from one inoization energy to the succesive one you can predict that you are removing an electron from a closer to the nucleus orbital.

Berylium has atomic number 4. So, the number of electrons of the neutral atom is also 4. Hence, the electron configuration of beryllium is 1s² 2s².

From the given data, <em>the first four ionization energies in kJ/mol are 900, 1757, 14,849, and 21,007</em>.

From that you can calculate the following changes in the ionization energies:

  • From first to second: 1,757 kJ/mol - 900 kJ/mol = 857 kJ/mol
  • From second to third: 14,849 kJ/mol - 1,757kJ/mol = 13,092 kJ/mol
  • From third to fourth: 21,007 kJ/mol - 14,849 kJ/mol = 6,158 kJ/mol

And now you can see that there is a larger jump in the energy, a greater change, required to remove the third electron.

That is explained because the first and second electron are removed from the orbital 2s while the third electron has to be removed from the orbital 1s which is closer to the nucleus. This third electron is more strongly attracted by the nucleus and substantially  more energy is required to accomplish this work.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Write an expression for the calculation subtract 9 from doubled 14
Helga [31]

doubled 14 is 14²

or 14×14 = 196

now substract 9 from it

196 - 9 = 187

8 0
3 years ago
after allowing 10% discount on the Marked price of an article is and then 15% vat is charge its price become Rs 16720 how much a
Helga [31]

Answer:18/25

Step-by-step explanation: because if you do that it turned into a c- and the if you round that too window u get 2.35 easy

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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