Which of the following statements accurately describes the free enterprise

In a ________ marketing system, two or more unrelated companies put together resources or programs to exploit an emerging market

sammy [17]

In a horizontal marketing system, two or more unrelated companies put together resources or programs to exploit an emerging marketing opportunity. Thus the correct option is E.

<h3>What is marketing?</h3>

Marketing refers as a technique in which awareness of any product is created with the help of advertising and promotion to attract customers and to encourage them to make a purchase.

A horizontal marketing system is a type of distribution channel in which unconnected businesses at the same level form an alliance. The objective is to take advantage of economies of scale.

Therefore, option E is appropriate.

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In the ________, two or more unrelated companies put together resources or programs to exploit an emerging marketing opportunity.

A.contractual marketing system

B.vertical marketing system

C.conventional marketing channel

D.franchise organization

E.horizontal marketing system

8 0

1 year ago

Isabella loves Coca Cola products. She has several memorabilia from her visit to the World of Coca Cola proudly displayed in her

lutik1710 [3]

Answer:

The correct answer is Brand Loyalty.

Explanation:

Brand loyalty is one of the factors that most helps explain why consumers choose one brand or another among all the options offered by the market. According to Jensen and Hansen (2006), the organizations with the most loyal customers have a high market share, which in turn translates into greater profitability. This explains, in part, the growing interest that is evident today in the study of this topic.

5 0

3 years ago

Taylor and Sons buys equipment on Aug. 1, 2008 for $100,000 cash. They estimatethe equipment will have a salvage value of $13,00

larisa86 [58]

Answer:

Journal Entry

Dr. Depreciation Expense $7,250

Cr. Accumulated Depreciation $7,250

Explanation:

Depreciation is a expense which is charged against an asset over its useful life due to wear and tear of that asset. This expense is recorded as and Expense in Income statement and accumulated in an contra asset account asset account until the disposal of the asset.

Cost of Equipment = $100,000

Useful life of the asset = 5 years

Salvage value of the asset = $13,000

Depreciable value of the asset will be expenses equally every year over 5 years.

Depreciable value = Cost of the asset - Salvage value = $100,000 - $13,000 = $87,000

Depreciation Expense = Depreciable Value / Useful Life of the asset = $87,000 / 5 years = $17,400 per year

As only 5 month have been passed in 2008, the depreciation expense account will be charged as follow

Depreciation charge in 2008 = $17,400 x 5 / 12 = $7,250

8 0

3 years ago

Find the future values of these ordinary annuities. Compounding occurs once a year. Do not round intermediate calculations. Roun

Dimas [21]

Answer:

a. Futuere Value = $19,245.86

b. Futuere Value = $3,060.86

c. Futuere Value = $0

d-1. Futuere Value = $21,170.44

d-2. Futuere Value = $3,213.90

d-3. Futuere Value = $0

Explanation:

Note: The data in the question are merged. They are therefore sorted before answering the question as follows:

Find the future values of these ordinary annuities. Compounding occurs once a year. Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answers to the nearest cent.

a. $900 per year for 12 years at 10%. $ 19,245.85

b. $450 per year for 6 years at 5%. $ 3,060.86

c. $200 per year for 6 years at 0%. $

d. Rework parts a, b, and c assuming they are annuities due.

Future value of $900 per year for 12 years at 10%: $ 21,170.43

Future value of $450 per year for 6 years at 5%: $ 3,213.90

Future value of $200 per year for 6 years at 0%: $

Explanation of the answer is now provided as follows:

The formula for calculating the Future Value (FV) of an Ordinary Annuity given as follows:

FV = M * (((1 + r)^n - 1) / r) ................................. (1)

Where,

FV = Future value of the amount =?

M = Annuity payment

r = Annual interest rate

n = number of periods years

This formula is now applied as follows:

a. $900 per year for 12 years at 10%. $ 19,245.85

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $900

r = 10%, or 0.10

n = 12

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $900 * (((1 + 0.10)^12 - 1) / 0.10)

FV = $900 * 21.38428376721

FV = $19,245.855390489

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = 19,245.86

b. $450 per year for 6 years at 5%. $ 3,060.86

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $450

r = 5%, or 0.05

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $450 * (((1 + 0.05)^6 - 1) / 0.05)

FV = $450 * 6.8019128125

FV = $3,060.860765625

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $3,060.86

c. $200 per year for 6 years at 0%. $

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $200

r = 0%, or 0

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $200 * (((1 + 0)^6 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * ((1^6 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * ((1 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * (0 / 0)

FV = $200 * 0

FV = $0

d. Rework parts a, b, and c assuming they are annuities due.

The formula for calculating the Future Value (FV) of an Annuity Due is given as follows:

FV = M * (((1 + r)^n - 1) / r) * (1 + r) ................................. (2)

Where,

FV = Future value

M = Annuity payment

r = Annual interest rate

n = number of periods years

This formula is now applied as follows:

d-1. Future value of $900 per year for 12 years at 10%: $ 21,170.43

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $900

r = 10%, or 0.10

n = 12

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $900 * (((1 + 0.10)^12 - 1) / 0.10) * (1 + 0.10)

FV = $900 * 21.38428376721 * 1.10

FV = $2,1170.4409295379

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $2,1170.44

d-2. Future value of $450 per year for 6 years at 5%: $ 3,213.90

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $450

r = 5%, or 0.05

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $450 * (((1 + 0.05)^6 - 1) / 0.05) * (1 + 0.05)

FV = $450 * 6.8019128125 * 1.05

FV = $3,213.90380390625

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $3,213.90

d-3. Future value of $200 per year for 6 years at 0%: $

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $200

r = 0%, or 0

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $200 * (((1 + 0)^6 - 1) / 0) * (1 + 0)

FV = $200 * ((1^6 - 1) / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * ((1 - 1) / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * (0 / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * 0 * 1

FV = $0

8 0

2 years ago

"Price gouging" is when a seller responds to high demand by charging as much as they possibly can, even if that price exceeds wh

Kamila [148]

Answer:

Price gouging is charging unnecessarily high prices for goods if they are in high demand in market. From a sellers perspective its profitable because he/she is able to get more profits on a good and because the goods have a high demand the goods will eventually be sold even on a high price.

From a consumers perspective if the good is a basic need and the consumer is paying high price for it, this can be frustrating but the consumer will have to buy it. If the commodity is not a basic need then the consumer can just stop buying that good and can substitute any other good.

Explanation:

Price gouging is charging unnecessarily high prices for goods if they are in high demand in market. From a sellers perspective its profitable because he/she is able to get more profits on a good and because the goods have a high demand the goods will eventually be sold even on a high price.

From a consumers perspective if the good is a basic need and the consumer is paying high price for it, this can be frustrating but the consumer will have to buy it. If the commodity is not a basic need then the consumer can just stop buying that good and can substitute any other good.

6 0

2 years ago