This is what i found Answer 1
Risk-Adjusted Asset Base
The calculation of the risk-adjusted asset base for a bank is as below-
Risk-adjusted asset = (Cash × 0%) + (municipal security × 20%) + (home mortgages × 50%) + (Commercial loans × 100%)
= (20 × 0%) + (100 × 20%) + (500 × 50%) + (300$ × 100%)
= 0 + 20 + 250 + 300
= $570 million
The outcome shows that the risk-adjusted or weighted asset based for the bank will be $570 million.
Tier1 and Tier 2 Capital:
If the bank has no off-balance sheet activity then minimum required level of Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital will be-
Tier 1 capital = Risk-weighted asset × 4%
= $570 × 4%
= $22.8 million
Tier 2 capital = Maximum of 1.25% of risk-weighted asset
= $570 × 1.25%
= $7.125 million
Total capital = $22.8 + $7.125 => $29.925 million
The outcomes indicate that the minimum required level of Tier1 and Tier
2 capital is $22.8 million and $7.125 million for the bank.
Bank Comply with Capital Requirements:
If the bank has Tier 1 capital of $25 million and Tier 2 capital of $15
million then it will comply with its capital requirements of $29.925
million. It is because in this situation, total capital of bank is $37
million that is higher than the above calculated capital of $29.925
million.
Impact of off-Balance Sheet Activities on Capital Requirements
The addition of off-balance sheet activities might increase the capital
requirement of the bank. It is because an off-balance sheet items is a
financial contract that can create credit loss for the company due to
credit risk. So, in case of adding off-balance sheet activities, a bank
will require more capital to cover credit loss. Along with this, it can
also increase the minimum ratio of capital to risk-weighted assets from
8% and in that situation; the bank will need more capital (Carmichael
& Graham, 2012).
Answer 2
Probability of Repayment and Risk Premium
A).
If the rate on a one-year treasury bill is 6% and in case of loan
default, no payments are expected on financial securities then the
probability of repayment and the risk premium on 1 year AA-rated loan
yielding 9 percent will be-
Probability of Repayment:
The following formula can be useful to determine probability of repayment.
P = (1 + I) / (1 + k)
Where,
I = 6%
k = 9%
Then, ...you have $2.19 left :D
1) Change the nature of the product
2) Give away discounts
3) Reduce the price of the product compared to the competitiveness of the market
Answer:
$1,375
Explanation:
Given the information above, the Ending inventory = Units available - Units sold
Units available = 10 + 25 + 30 + 70 = 80
Units sold = 60
Ending inventory = 80 - 60
Ending inventory = 20
Cost of ending inventory under FIFO
= (15 × $70) + (20 - 15) × $65
= $1,050 + $325
= $1,375
Therefore, the ending inventory cost using FIFO is $1,375
Answer:
The answer is III) make simultaneous trades in two markets without any net investment.
Explanation:
Arbitrage is simultaneously buying an asset ( may be currency, securities...) in a low-priced market and sell it in a high-priced market.
As a results, the investor earns profit from price differences in the two markets without risk and net investment. It is because the two trading happens at the same time once price differences in any two markets are recognized ( arbitrage opportunities recognized) and the proceed of selling the asset is immediately used for financing/returning to the buying of the asset.
Thus, (III) is the correct answer.
Answer: 6.79%
Explanation:
The holding period return is:
= (Current price - Cost price + Dividend) / Cost price
= (48.27 - 45.95 + 1.20) / 45.95
= 7.66%
The annualized return is:
= ( ( 1 + holding period return) ^ number of days in a year/ number of days stock was held - 1)
= ( ( 1 + 7.66%) ³⁶⁵ / ⁴¹⁰ - 1)
= 6.79%
