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podryga [215]
3 years ago
12

In the current year, Borden Corporation had sales of $2,000,000 and cost of goods sold of $1,200,000. Borden expects returns in

the following year to equal 8% of sales. The unadjusted balance in Inventory Returns Estimated is a debit of $6,000, and the unadjusted balance in Sales Refund Payable is a credit of $10,000. The adjusting entry or entries to record the expected sales returns is (are):_________.(A)Accounts Receivable 2,000,000 Sales 2,000,000(B)Sales returns and allowances 150,000 Sales 150,000Cost of Goods Sold 90,000 Inventory Returns Estimated 90,000(C)Sales 2,000,000 Sales Refund Payable 160,000Accounts receivable 1,840,000Sales Refund Payable 150,0000 Accounts receivable 150,000(D)Sales Returns and Allowances 150,000 Sales Refund Payable 150,000Inventory Returns Estimated 90,000 Cost of goods sold 90,000
Business
1 answer:
HACTEHA [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

(D) Dr Sales Returns and Allowances 150,000

Cr Sales Refund Payable 150,000

Dr Inventory Returns Estimated 90,000

Cr Cost of goods sold 90,000

Explanation:

Based on the information given The adjusting Journal entry or entries to record the expected sales returns is (are):

Dr Sales Returns and Allowances 150,000

Cr Sales Refund Payable 150,000

[(8%*2,000,000)-10,000]

Dr Inventory Returns Estimated 90,000

Cr Cost of goods sold 90,000

[(8%*1,200,000-6,000]

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Titan Mining Corporation has 6.3 million shares of common stock outstanding, 220,000 shares of 3.6 percent preferred stock outst
Shkiper50 [21]

The firm’s market value capital structure is $503,910,000.

The rate the firm should use to discount the project’s cash flows is 9.33%.

a.

We will begin by finding the market value of each type of financing. We find:

Market value of debt = MVD = 105,000*($1,000)*(1.07) = $25,750,000

Market value of preferred cost = MVP = 220,000*($83) = $18,260,000

Market value of equity = MVE = 6,300,000*($73) = $459,900,000

And the total market value of the firm is:

V = $25,750,000 + 18,260,000+ 459,900,000

V = $503,910,000

b.

So, the market value weights of the company's financing are:

D/V = $25,750,000/$503,910,000 = 0.0511

P/V = $18,260,000/$503,910,000 = 0.0362

E/V = $459,900,000/$503,910,000 = 0.9127

For projects equally as risky as the firm itself, the WACC should be used as the discount rate.

First, we can find the cost of equity using the CAPM. The cost of equity is:

RE = .031 + 1.15(.071)

RE = 0.1030, or 10.03%

The cost of debt is the YTM of the bonds, so:

P0 = $1,070 = $26.50(PVIFAR%,34) + $1,000(PVIFR%,34)

R = 2.228%

YTM = 2.228% × 2

YTM = 4.46%

And the aftertax cost of debt is:

RD = (1 - .22)(.0446)

RD = .0348, or 3.48%

The cost of preferred stock is:

RP = $3.60/$73

RP = .0493, or 4.93%

Now we can calculate the WACC as:

WACC = 0.0511(.0348) + 0.0362(.0493) + 0.9127(.1003)

WACC =0.0933, or 9.33%

Hence, The firm’s market value capital structure is $503,910,000.

The rate the firm should use to discount the project’s cash flows is 9.33%.

Learn more about equity valuation:

brainly.com/question/17191274

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A small barbershop is operated by a single barber. it has room for at most two customers. potential customers arrive as a poisso
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λ=3 , mu = 5

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Answer:

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