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VikaD [51]
3 years ago
10

Nicholas bought a new computer for $1,250. The value of the computer decreases by 17 percent every year. Approximately how much

is the computer worth after 5 years?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Mazyrski [523]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: The computer worth $ 492.38 after 5 years.

Step-by-step explanation:

If the value of an item depreciates by r% then the value of the item after t years is given by :-

V=V_0(1-\dfrac{r}{100})^{t}

, where V_0 = initial value.

Given: V_0 =$1,250, r=17% , t= 5 years

Then, the value of computer after 5 years = 1250(1-\dfrac{17}{100})^5

=1250(0.83)^5\\\\=1250(0.39390)\\\\\approx492.38

Hence, the computer worth $ 492.38 after 5 years.

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a. (3,-2)

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In contract negotiations between a local government agency and its workers,
Liono4ka [1.6K]

Answer:

a. 0.4

b. Not independent.

Step-by-step explanation:

a. We use the probability table attached below for our calculations.

-the probability that an agreement is reached on both sides is obtained from the table:

P(Agreement)=\frac{400}{1000}\\\\\\=0.4

b. To determine whether the two events are independent, we compare the probabilities P(s)\times P(i) and P(s \ and \ i) where i denotes insurance and s denotes salaries:

P(s)\times P(i)=0.5\times 0.7\\\\=0.35\\\\\\P(s \ and \ i)=0.4

Two events are considered to be independent, if and only if:

P(A).P(B)=P(A\ and \ B)\\\\=>P(s).P(i)\neq P(s\ and\  i)

Hence, the events are not independent.

8 0
3 years ago
Henry takes 1 hour to drive to work and 1 hour to drive home. if he works 5 days a week, how many hours does he spend driving to
alisha [4.7K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Time taken to drive to work = 1 hr

Time taken to drive home = 1 hr

Time taken to drive from home to work and back home again ( IN ONE DAY)

=1 + 1 = 2hrs

So time taken for driving to and from work for 5 days = 2hrs × 5 days = 10 hrs .

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3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A student says the prime factors of 17 are 1 and 17
Tju [1.3M]
That is correct as 17 is a prime number and can only be divided by 1 and itself

Hope this helps :)
6 0
3 years ago
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I just need some help solving this question, i’m not sure what to do
KonstantinChe [14]

From the double-angle identity,

cos2x=2*sinx*cosx

we can rewritte our given equation as:

4sinxcosx-2cosx=0

By factoring 2cosx on the left hand side, we have

2cosx(2sinx-1)=0

This equation has 2 solutions when

\begin{gathered} cosx=0\text{ ...\lparen A\rparen} \\ and \\ 2sinx-1=0\text{ ...\lparen B\rparen} \end{gathered}

From equation (A), we obtain

x=\frac{\pi}{2}\text{ or }\frac{3\pi}{2}

and from equation (B), we have

\begin{gathered} sinx=\frac{1}{2} \\ which\text{ gives} \\ x=\frac{\pi}{6}\text{ or }\frac{5\pi}{6} \end{gathered}

On the other hand, we can find one more solution from the original equation by substituting x=0, that is,

\begin{gathered} 2ccos(2\times0)-2cos0=0 \\ which\text{ gives} \\ 2\times1-2\times1=0 \\ so\text{ 0=0} \end{gathered}

then, x=0 is another solution. In summary, we have obtained the following solutions:

\begin{gathered} x=0 \\ x=\frac{\pi}{2}\text{or}\frac{3\pi}{2}\text{ and } \\ x=\frac{\pi}{6}\text{or}\frac{5\pi}{6} \end{gathered}

However, the intersection of the last set is empty. So the unique solution is x=0 as we can corroborate on the following picture:

Therefore, the solution set is: {0}

7 0
1 year ago
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