The answer is a or d i’m not sure which one though sorry.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
√(-100)
Use the imaginary number rule 
√(-1) × √(100)
i × √(10²)
i × 10
= 10i
Answer:
B. 0.602%
Step-by-step explanation:
Probability is essentially (# times specific event will occur) / (# times general event will occur). Here, we have a few specific events: draw a quarter, draw a second quarter, draw a penny, and draw another penny. The general event will just be the number of coins there are to choose from.
The probability that the first draw is a quarter will be 4 / (4 + 8 + 9) = 4/21.
Since we've drawn one now, there's only 21 - 1 = 20 total coins left. The probability of drawing a second quarter is: (4 - 1) / (21 - 1) = 3/20.
The probability of drawing a penny is: 9 / (20 - 1) = 9/19.
The probability of drawing a second penny is: (9 - 1) / (19 - 1) = 8/18.
Multiply these four probabilities together:
(4/21) * (3/20) * (9/19) * (8/18) = 864 / 143640 ≈ 0.602%
The answer is B.
The answer is zero there is no slope
