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alex41 [277]
3 years ago
12

PlEASE HELP ME PEOPLE HUMPTH OK ILL SAY IT PEOPLE WANT MONEY TO ANSWER PROBLEMS HERE If the mean of six nu m b e rs is 48, does

one
of the nu m b e rs have to be 48? Explain
why or why not. Give an example with six
nu m b e rs to show your answe
Mathematics
1 answer:
SpyIntel [72]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

No, none of the number need to be 48 for the mean to be 48. To get a mean, you add up all the number and divide it by the amount of numbers.

Example:

the mean of 10, 79, 42, 88, 19, and 50 is 48, but the actual number 48 was not part of the set.

10 + 79 + 42 + 88 + 19 + 50 = 288

288 ÷ 6 = 48

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