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natima [27]
2 years ago
10

Can someone pls explain I need help

Mathematics
1 answer:
erastovalidia [21]2 years ago
4 0

Answer: 25

Step-by-step explanation: I just entered the equation into my calculator like so.

A negative number times a negative number equals a positive number.

I hope this helps, have a nice day.

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Domain of the function g(x)=1-2x^2
RoseWind [281]
G(x) = 1 - 2x²

The domain: x ∈ R  /all real numbers/

3 0
3 years ago
Cynthia typed 372 words in 6 minutes what's her typing rate in words per minute
VMariaS [17]

Answer:

<u>x = 62 words</u>

Explanation:

→ <em>We write the data problems. </em>

372 words .............6 minutes

→ We must find: <em>What's Cynthia typing rate in words per minute?</em>

372 words .............6 minutes

x words ..................1 minute

x = 372 words * 1 minute/ 6 minutes

<u>x = 62 words</u>

5 0
3 years ago
What is the distance from -2 to 0 ?
Sophie [7]

Answer:

B :)

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
Reinhardt Furniture Company has 40,000 shares of cumulative preferred 2% stock, $150 par and 100,000 shares of $5 par common sto
Ann [662]

Answer:

for year 1

common stock =  $1.75 per share

preferred stock  = Zero

for year 2

common stock =  $4.25 per share

preferred stock  = $0.3 per share

for year 3

common stock =   $3 per share

preferred stock  =  $2 per share

Step-by-step explanation:

step 1

preferred stock value =  (40000 shares * $150) = $6000000

common stock value  = (100000 shares * $5) = $500000

 step 2

For year 1:

Dividend on preferred stock;

\frac{6000000 * 2}{100} = $120000

But total dividend in the question was $70000 therefore total amount of  dividend on cumulative preferred stock is $70000.

hence, dividend per share

= \frac{70000}{40000 shares} = $1.75 per share

Dividend on common stock;

70,000 - 70,000 = Zero

as total dividend distributed in year 1 is insufficient for cumulative preferred stock therefore no dividend will be paid on common stock.

For year 2:

Dividend on cumulative preferred stock;

\frac{6000000 * 2}{100}= $120000

extra dividend of year 1 ($120000 - $70000) = $50000

Thus total dividend on cumulative preferred stock

($120000 + $50000) = $170000

So dividend per share

\frac{170000}{40000\ shares}= $4.25 per share

Dividend on common stock;

($200000 – $170000) = $30000

dividend per share

\frac{30000}{100000\ shares} = $0.3 per share

For year 3:

Dividend on cumulative preferred stock;

\frac{6000000 * 2}{100} = $120000

total dividend on cumulative preferred stock $120000

dividend per share

\frac{120000}{40000 shares} = $3 per share

No dividend was extra in the year 2 therefore only available dividend of this year will be paid.

Dividend on common stock;

($320000 – $120000) = $200000

dividend per share

\frac{200000}{100000\ shares}= $2 per share

3 0
3 years ago
Geraldo recently saw a newspaper ad for a new version of his laptop. the projected price is $400.00, and the laptop will be out
Tanya [424]

The amount he had to pay if he have to purchase a laptop today that is the same value as the one he saw in the ad is $ 390.24.

Given that:-

Price of the laptop after 1 year = $ 400.

Inflation rate = 2.5 %

We have to find the amount he had to pay if he have to purchase a laptop today that is the same value as the one he saw in the ad.

Let the price he had to pay be x.

Hence, we can write,

x + (x*(2.5)*1)/100 = 400

x(1 + 1/40) = 400

x(41/40) = 400

x = 400*40/41 = $ 16000/41 = $ 390.24.

To learn more about amount, here:-

brainly.com/question/8082054

#SPJ1

5 0
1 year ago
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