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Novosadov [1.4K]
3 years ago
5

A company deposits $3500 in a bank at the end of every year for 12 years. The company makes no deposits during the subsequent 8

years. If the bank pays 6% interest, how much would be in the account at the end of 20 years?
Business
1 answer:
Firdavs [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

FV= $94,108.42

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to calculate the future value of the 12 annual deposits:</u>

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

A= annual deposit

FV= {3,500*[(1.06^12) - 1]} / 0.06

FV= $59,044.79

<u>Now, the future value at the end of the 20 years (8 years more):</u>

FV= PV*(1 + i)^n

FV= 59,044.79*(1.06^8)

FV= $94,108.42

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The _ leader is never able to completely turn loose of the decision making authority of the management position.
zvonat [6]

It should be noted that Consultative leader is never able to completely turn loose of the decision making authority of the management position.

<h3>What is Consultative leadership?</h3>

Consultative leadership can be regarded as a leadership style which focus on team building as well as making skills of others in making decisions.

Therefore, with Consultative leadership, decision can be made.

Learn more about Consultative leadership at;

brainly.com/question/25927714

3 0
2 years ago
When is a goodwill impairment loss recognized? a. Annually on a systematic and rational basis. b. Never When both the fair value
gulaghasi [49]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": When both the fair value of a reporting unit and its associated implied goodwill fall below their respective carrying values.

Explanation:

Impairment Loss is the decrease in an asset's net carrying value that exceeds the future undisclosed cash flow it should generate. The net carrying value is an asset's acquisition cost minus depreciation. Impairment occurs when a company sells or abandons an asset that is no longer beneficial.

Thus, <em>a goodwill impairment loss is recognized when the goodwill's net carrying value is below its fair value and the expected cash flow it was to generate.</em>

7 0
3 years ago
Proposed by Richard Hackman and Greg Oldham, _________ states that work has five core dimensions that impact employee satisfacti
jok3333 [9.3K]

According to Richard Hackman and Greg Oldham, Job characteristics explain the effects of five core dimensions of employee satisfaction.  

Explanation:

The research work of Richard Hackman and Greg Oldham mainly relates to the nature of the work with the objective of the working goals to fulfill until it reaches its saturating point. It can be only accomplished only with the mentioned features of the labor like types of skills, the importance of the task, choosing the apt task, self-governance, and the review of the overall performance of the work.

The features of the work are collectively referred to as job characteristics. It will have a positive effect unless the above-mentioned features of the labor are utilized in a proper mix to ensure full employee satisfaction.

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose that your employee Richard has been having trouble with the paperwork he must do for his job. Your goal is for the emplo
Butoxors [25]

Answer:(E) Positive reinforcement

Explanation:

   According to the given scenario, the positive reinforcement is one of the type of psychological behavior that helps in strengthening the behavior of the organisms.

The Option (1) is basically illustrating the concept of the positive reinforcement as Richard is spend his maximum time in the job and appropriate him when he perform well in the work.

 The positive reinforcement is one of the type of operant conditioning in which it define the various types of new behavior and focuses on reducing the unwanted things.          

 Therefore, Option (E) is correct answer.

5 0
3 years ago
Galvatron Metals has a bond outstanding with a coupon rate of 6.1 percent and semiannual payments. The bond currently sells for
Eva8 [605]

Answer:

After tax cost of debt is 4.16%

Explanation:

The yield on the debt which is pre-tax cost of debt can be computed using the rate formula in excel, which is given as follows:

=rate(nper,pmt,-pv,fv)

where nper is the number of coupon payments,this is calculated as 19*2 since it has a semi-annual coupon interest

pmt is the periodic coupon payment  6.1%/2*$2000=$61

pv is the current price of the bond which is $1933

fv is the face value repayable on redemption $2000

=rate(38,61,-1933,2000)

=3.20%

This is semi-annual yield , annual yield is 3.20%*2=6.40%

After tax cost of debt=6.40%*(1-t)

where t is the tax rate at 35%=0.35

after tax cost of debt=6.40%*(1-0.35)

                                  =4.16%

5 0
3 years ago
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