ANSWER
EXPLANATION
The given inequality is,
By the definition of absolute value,
We divide through by negative 1, in the first part of the inequality and reverse the sign to get,
We simplify now to get,
Divide through by 2 to obtain,
The answer would be:
Korea: 6
Italy: 7
France: 8
6, 7, 8 are consecutive numbers because they go in the order that you would count from 1-x(an infinite number) with.
I hope this helped! If you have further questions don't be afraid to ask!
~Travis
Answer:
C option
Step-by-step explanation:
C is the correct solution of to above equation
The numbers between 30 and 40 whose only factors are one and themselves, also called prime numbers, are 31 and 37.<span> Prime numbers are useful in generating numerical passwords or codes that are difficult to crack. so A) is the answer
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