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BartSMP [9]
2 years ago
8

Help me with ixllll pleaseee

Mathematics
2 answers:
navik [9.2K]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

No

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is no because you cannot map the two shapes. Shape 1 (E, D, B, C) is not equal to shape 2 (P, Q, S, R) and cannot be mapped onto shape 2 making them not similar.

ELEN [110]2 years ago
6 0
I think it is no , one looks skinner than the other
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