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3 years ago

if aggregate demand is growing faster than long run aggregate supply, the federal reserve is most likely to

Business

1 answer:

Musya8 [376]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

.sell securities on the open market

Explanation:

Aggregate demand is simply a schedule or a curve. It said to shows the total quantity of goods and services demanded (purchased) at various price level.

Aggregate demand-aggregate supply (AD-AS) model is macroeconomic model that uses aggregate demand and aggregate supply to determine and explain the price level and the real domestic output.

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Thomlin Company forecasts that total overhead for the current year will be $11,597,000 with 164,000 total machine hours. Year to

Pepsi [2]

Answer: c.$71 per machine hour

Explanation:

The Pre-determined Overhead rate is the rate Thomlin Company forecasted that the company would incur total overhead for the current year.

They forecasted total overhead of $11,597,000 with 164,000 total machine hours.

Since the rate is based on Machine Hours the rate would be,

= Total Forecasted Overhead / Total Forecasted Machine Hours

= 11,597,000 / 164,000

= 70.71

= $71

4 0

3 years ago

The Quorum Company has a prospective 6-year project that requires initial fixed assets costing $962,000, annual fixed costs of $

diamong [38]

Answer:

5375

Explanation:

Given that:

Initial Fixed assets costing = $962000

Annual fixed costs = $403400

Variable cost per unit = $123.60

Sales price per unit = $249.00

Discount rate = 14%

Tax rate = 21%

The contribution per unit = Sales price - Variable cost

= $(249.00 - 123.60)

= $125.40

The present value break-even point(BEP) is the region of sales level where the net present value (NPV) equals zero.

Assuming that the sales level = p

i.e.

NPV = PV(of inflows - of outflows)

Inflows = (p * contribution per unit - annual fixed cost)( 1- tax rate) + depreciation * tax rate

= (p * 125.4 - 403400) ( 1 - 0.21) + depreciation * tax rate

where;

depreciation = initial fixed assest cost/ lifetime of the project

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + (962000/6)*0.21

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + (160333.33)*0.21

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670

Now, the PV of the inflows =PV factor(6 years, 14%) * inflows

$= inflows * \dfrac{( 1-(1.14)^{-6})}{0.14}$

$= inflows * 3.8887$

Replacing the value for inflows, we have:

$=((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887$

The PV of the outflows = Initial Fixed asset cost = $962000

∴

Equating both together using:

PV(of inflows - of outflows) = 0

((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887 - 962000 = 0

((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887 = 962000

(99.066p - 318686 + 33670) * 3.8887 = 962000

(99.066p - 285016) * 3.8887 = 962000

385.24p - 1108341.72 = 962000

385.24p= 962000 + 1108341.72

385.24p= 2070341.72

p = 2070341.72 / 385.24

p ≅ 5375

6 0

3 years ago

Next to the following list of eight characteristics of business organizations, select a brief description of how each characteri

Gemiola [76]

Answer:

1. Owner authority and control - one vote per share, readily transferred

2 Ease of formation - requires government approval

3. Transferability of ownership - readily transferred

4. Ability to raise large amounts of capital - high ability

5. Duration of life - Unlimited

6. Owner liability - limited

7. Legal status - separate legal entity

8. Tax status of income - corporate income is taxed

Explanation:

A corporation is a business type :

1. Ownership of a corporation can be acquired by acquiring shares of the corporation.

2. A corporation requires government approval and a lot of legal requirements before it can be formed.

3. A corporation can raise capital through issuing shares, bonds and borrowing from financial institutions .

4. The liability of shareholders who are the owners are limited to the amount invested.

5. Corporate income is taxed and profit distributed to shareholders are also taxed.

6. A corporation is a separate legal entity.

7. The life of a corporation can be unlimited.

8. One share is equal to one voting right.

I hope my answer helps you

4 0

3 years ago

Honduras is a small economy in central america. it keeps a fixed exchange rate with the us. capital is perfectly mobile. you may

rosijanka [135]

Answer:

Given that Honduras is a small economy in Central America, and it keeps a fixed exchange rate with the US, and capital is perfectly mobile, but interest rates are three percent in the US and six percent in Honduras, the explanation of the difference in these interest rates are as follows:

Honduras has a higher interest rate, meaning that its sovereign bonds pay higher values than the American ones, as well as its banks also pay higher interests on their investments compared to American banks.

This is so for a double reason: on the one hand, because the Honduran economy is less reliable than the American economy, which is larger and therefore more solvent and capable of overcoming eventual crises, with which the risk of default is less.

On the other hand, the Honduran economy is more dependent on foreign investment, so it must offer higher interest rates to attract such investments.

5 0

3 years ago

If a borrower can afford to make monthly principal and interest payments of 1000 and the lender will make a 30 year loan at 5 1/

Alexus [3.1K]

Answer:

The the largest loan this buyer can afford is 14,533.75.

Explanation:

This can be determined using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:

Step 1: Calculations of the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 30 year loan at 5 1/2%

PV30 = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (1)

Where;

PV30 = Present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 30 year loan at 5 1/2% =?

P = monthly payment = 1000

r = interest rate = 5 1/2% = 5.50% = 0.055

n = number of years = 30

Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:

PV30 = 1000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.055))^30) / 0.055)

PV30 = 1000 * 14.5337451711221

PV30 = 14,533.75

Step 2: Calculation of the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 20 year loan at 4 1/2%

PV20 = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (2)

Where;

PV30 = Present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 20 year loan at 4 1/2% =?

P = monthly payment = 1000

r = interest rate = 4 1/2% = 4.50% = 0.045

n = number of years = 20

Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:

PV20 = 1000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.045))^20) / 0.045)

PV20 = 1000 * 13.0079364514537

PV20 = 13,007.94

Conclusion

Since 14,533.75 which is the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 30 year loan at 5 1/2% is greater than the 13,007.94 which is the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 20 year loan at 4 1/2%, it therefore implies that the the largest loan this buyer can afford is 14,533.75.

5 0

2 years ago