20.28$- how many pints are in a cup.. 1 pint = 2 cups
Answer:
D is the answer
Step-by-step explanation:
don't froget my cake!! :)
Answer: 
Step-by-step explanation:
Binomial probability formula :-
, where P(x) is the probability of getting success in x trials, n is the total number of trials and p is the probability of getting success in each trial.
We assume that the total number of days in a particular year are 365.
Then , the probability for each employee to have birthday on a certain day :

Given : The number of employee in the company = n
Then, the probability there is at least one day in a year when nobody has a birthday is given by :-

Hence, the probability there is at least one day in a year when nobody has a birthday =
Answer:
≅ 0.02083333
Step-by-step explanation:
(3.5 * 2/7 - 2/3)÷16 = 1
48
≅ 0.02083333
1: Conversion a decimal number to a fraction: 3.5
2: Multiple: 3.5 * 2
7
= 7 · 2
2 · 7
= 14
14
= 1 · 14
1 · 14
= 1
3: Subtract:
4: Divide
<em><u>Hope this helps.</u></em>
Answer:
go to algebra answers.com
Step-by-step explanation: