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Semenov [28]
3 years ago
10

On January 1, 2019, Pepin Company adopts a compensatory share option plan for its 50 executives. The plan allows each executive

to purchase 200 shares of its $2 par common stock for $30 per share after completing a 3-year service period. Pepin estimates the value of each option to be $14 on the grant date, and the company expects that 15% of the options will be forfeited and uses this rate in its compensation cost calculations in 2019. At the end of 2021, Pepin determined that the actual turnover was 7 executives for the entire service period. On January 6, 2022, 8 executives exercise their options.Required:1. Prepare a schedule of Pepin’s compensation computations for its compensatory share option plan for 2019 through 2021.2. Prepare Pepin’s journal entries for 2019 through 2022 in regard to this plan.
Business
1 answer:
bazaltina [42]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

On 31 December 2019: Debit Compensation expense for $39,667; and Credit Paid-in capital from share options for $39,667.

On 31 December 2020: Debit Compensation expense for $39,667; and Credit Paid-in capital from share options for $39,667.

On 31 December 2021: Debit Compensation expense for $41,067; and Credit Paid-in capital from share options for $41,067.

On 06 January 2022: Debit Cash for $48,000; Debit Paid-in capital from share options for $22,400; Credit Common stock for $3,200; and Credit Paid in capital in excess of par- common stock (balancing figure) for $67,200.

Explanation:

Note: See part b of the the attached excel file for the journal entries

Also note that before the journal entries are recorded, the current compensation expense for year 2019, 2020 and 2021 are first calculated. See part a of the attached excel file for the calculation of the the current compensation expense for year 2019, 2020 and 2021.

In part a of the attached excel file, the estimated compensation cost for 2019, 2020 and 2021 are calculated as follows:

Estimated compensation cost for 2019 = Option value on the grant date * Number of executives * (1 - Expected option forfeited rate) * Number of shares in the option = $14 * 50 * (1 - 15%) * 200 = $119,000

Estimated compensation cost for 2020 = Option value on the grant date * Number of executives * (1 - Expected option forfeited rate) * Number of shares in the option = $14 * 50 * (1 - 15%) * 200 = $119,000

Estimated compensation cost for 2021 = Option value on the grant date * (Number of executives - Actual executives turnover for the entire service period) * Number of shares in the option = $14 * (50 - 7) * 200 = $120,400

On 06 January 2022, the calculation of the entries used in the part b of the attached excel file are as follows:

w.1. Cash = Number of executives who exercise their options * Number of shares in the option * Purchase price per share after completing a 3-year service period = (8 * 200 * $30) = $48,000  

w.2. Paid-in capital from share options = Number of executives who exercise their options * Number of shares in the option * Option value on the grant date = (8 * 200 * 14) = $22,400

w.3. Common Stock = Number of executives who exercise their options * Number of shares in the option * Sahre par value = (8 * 200 * $2) = $3,200

w.4. Paid in capital in excess of par- common stock (balancing figure)  = Cash + Paid-in capital from share options - Common Stock = $48,000 + $22,400 - $3,200 = $67,200

Download xlsx
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Alliance Products purchased equipment that cost $120,000. It had an estimated useful life of four years and no residual value. T
poizon [28]

Answer:

Alliance should record a loss of $5000.

Explanation:

Depreciation : The depreciation is the amount which is charged every year. It is a decrease value in the asset due to obsolescence, tear and wear value, usage of time, etc.

There are many methods for calculation the depreciation such as straight line method (SLM), Written down value method (WDV) and many more.

In the question, the straight line method is used.

In straight line method, the deprecation is charged with same value over the useful life of asset.

So, the calculation of depreciation is given below:

Since,

The purchase amount of equipment = $120,000

Useful life  = 4 years

Salvage value = 0

Sale value at the end of the third year = $25,000 cash.

By using above information, we have to calculate the depreciation for 3 years as in the end of the 3 year, the asset is sold.

Depreciation Formula for SLM method  = (Purchase cost- Salvage value) ÷ useful life

=  ($120,000 - 0) ÷ 4

= $30,000

So, the amount of depreciation for all year is $30,000

Depreciation for 1 year = $120,000 - $30,000 = $90,000

Depreciation for 2nd year = $90,000 - $30,000 = $60,000

Depreciation for 3rd year = $60,000 - $30,000 - $25,000 = -$5000

In the 3rd year, the alliance have a loss of $5000 after selling asset.

Hence, Alliance should record a loss of $5000.

3 0
3 years ago
Beta coefficients may be computed for investment companies and used to compute risk-adjusted rates of return.
shusha [124]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

The basic function of a beta coefficient is to measure the volatility or systematic risk. Firms and organisation analyse the beta coefficient before they invest in any new ventures because it helps to measure the risk-adjusted rate of returns. Beta coefficient measures the systematic risk which is the market risk, unpredictable and impossible to avoid.

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The information content of a regular dividend increase generally signals that:Multiple Choicefuture dividends will be lower.the
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Answer:

management believes the future earnings of the firm will be strong

Explanation:

The information content with respect to the regular dividend would be increase when the company would have a greater amount of earnings in near future and they try to give the greater amount of dividend to the shareholders. This represent the management would trust that the earnings of the future of the firm would be strong

Hence, the last option is correct

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2 years ago
Ferkil Corporation manufacturers a single product that has a selling price of $100 per unit. Fixed expenses total $225,000 per y
exis [7]

Answer:

d)= 6,500

Explanation:

The break-even point (BEP) is the units of  the product that Ferkil Corporation must sell for it to make no profit or loss.

This units can be determined as follows:

BEP = Total fixed cost + target profit/ selling price - variable cost

So we substitute the variables given into the formula

5000 = 225,000 /(100-X)

5000×(100-X) =225,000

500,000 -5000x = 225,000

(500,000 -225,000)/5000 = x

X= 55

variable cost per unit = $55

Units to sell to achieve a profit 67,500

= (225,000  + 67,500)/(100-55)

= 6,500

6 0
2 years ago
Due to a downturn the wage of entry level workers has declined by 10 per cent, as a
lilavasa [31]

The cross elasticity of demand for senior workers is 1.5. Senior workers and entry-level workers are gross complements.

The scale effect dominates in this example.

If the wage of the entry level workers increase, the demand curve would shift to the right.

<h3>What is the crosss price elasticity?</h3>

Cross price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of quantity demanded of good A to changes in price of good B.

Cross price elasticity = 15% / 10 = 1.5

Complement goods are goods or resources that are used together. As a result of the decline in wages, senior workers would be laid off. This means that senior workers and entry level workers work together.

<h3>What is the effect on the demand curve if the wages of entry level workers increase?</h3>

If the wage of the entry level workers increase, the demand for senior workers wouuld increase. This would lead to a shift to the right of the demand curve for senior workers.

To learn more about cross price elasticity, please check: brainly.com/question/26054575

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2 years ago
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