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zlopas [31]
3 years ago
8

6 points

Mathematics
1 answer:
ivolga24 [154]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

its A cause you dont no the hourly rate he rides and it 10 dollars for the the fee and paid 34 dollars all together

Step-by-step explanation:

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Suppose that 3&lt;a&lt;4 and 4&lt;b&lt;5. Find all possible values of:<br><br>a-b​
aleksley [76]

If 4 < b < 5, then -4 > -b > -5, or -5 < -b < -4.

Then

3 < a < 4  ==>  3 - 5 < a - b < 4 - 4  ==>  -2 < a - b < 0

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
1 3/4 x 4 1/6 whats answer
alexgriva [62]

Answer:

7 7/24

Step-by-step explanation:

first put the wholes inside the fraction:

1 \frac34 = \frac44 + \frac34 = \frac74

4 \frac16 = \frac{24}{6} + \frac16 = \frac{25}{6}

Then multiply numerator times numerator, denominator times denominator and take out wholes again:

\frac74 \times \frac{25}{6} = \frac{7 \times 25}{4 \times 6} = \frac{175}{24} = 7 \frac{7}{24}

8 0
4 years ago
Construct a triangle ABC, right angled at B and the sides BC = 4cm and AC = 5cm. Measure side AB.
MaRussiya [10]

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
A motorist drives at an average speed of 80 km/h. How far does she travel in 3 1/2 hours?​
zheka24 [161]
80 * 3.5 = 280
she travels around 280km in 3.5 hours.
3 0
3 years ago
Help! please i cant figure it out.
ki77a [65]

let's recall that the graph of a function passes the "vertical line test", however, that's not guarantee that its inverse will also be a function.

A function that has an inverse expression that is also a function, must be a one-to-one function, and thus it must not only pass the vertical line test, but also the horizontal line test.

Check the picture below, the left-side shows the function looping through up and down, it passes the vertical line test, in green, but it doesn't pass the horizontal line test.

now, check the picture on the right-side, if we just restrict its domain to be squeezed to only between [0 , π], it passes the horizontal line test, and thus with that constraint in place, it's a one-to-one function and thus its inverse is also a function, with that constraint in place, or namely with that constraint, cos(x) and cos⁻¹(x) are both functions.

7 0
2 years ago
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