Answer:
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $8.3 per machine hour
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Total machine-hours 80,000
Total fixed manufacturing overhead cost $416,000
Variable manufacturing overhead per machine-hour $ 3.10
<u>First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:</u>
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= (416,000/80,000) + 3.1
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $8.3 per machine hour
Answer:
The answer is explained below
Explanation:
To begin with, the policies that the goverments decide to implement in their countries tend to influece in a huge way the companies decisions and therefore its actions as well. Therefore that as a company manager of an international business he needs to stay very updated about the government policies over the countries where his company works. Moreover, the manager will understand that if there is free trade in a country then there will be no problems for his company to start selling there and obtaining the maximum profits as possible and if there is protectionism then the company will have to deal with the policies that the government implemented there. And that is why that as an international business manager he should really care about the policies of the country's government and if there is free trade of protectionism.
Answer:
The correct answer is option a.
Explanation:
Taxes levied on either buyers or sellers are equivalent. In both cases, the tax creates a wedge. This wedge is the difference between the price that the buyers have to pay and the price that the sellers receive.
The price that the buyers have to pay increases while the price that the sellers receive decreases. But this tax wedge does not depend on whom the tax is levied, it depends on the elasticity of demand and supply. So whether the tax is levied on buyers or sellers, the tax wedge will remain the same.
The tax burden will be shared between both buyers and sellers. So it is incorrect to say that the taxes levied on sellers and taxes levied on buyers are not equivalent.
Answer:
nope as long as I remember
