The volume of a cone is one-third of the product of the area of the base times the height, i.e.
(1/3)π(r^2)*h = (1/3)π(3cm)^2 *(8cm) = 75.40 cm^3
Now multiply that by the number of cones: 6 * 75.40 cm^3 = 452.40 cm^3.
Then the answer is 452 cm^3
You need to find out how many pints are in 2,4,6,8 quarts. by the way 1 quart equals 2 pints. so to start you off. 2 quarts would be 4 pints and so on
F(2) = 3(2)^2 + 2(2) + 4
= 3(4) + 4 + 4
= 12 + 8
f(2) = 20
f(a+h) = 3(a+h)^2 + 2(a+h) + 4
= 3(a^2 + 2ah + h^2) + 2a + 2h + 4
f(a+h) = 3a^2 + 6ah + 3h^2 + 2a + 2h + 4
Answer:
B. The width of the confidence interval would be smaller.
Step-by-step explanation:
By reducing the confidence level from 99% to 95%, the student assumes that there is more uncertainty about the new confidence interval than the previous one. That, being said, since the results aren't as certain, the confidence interval is widened towards a central average point because the new interval isn't as accurate.
Therefore, the answer is B. The width of the confidence interval would be smaller.
Answer:
4.8
Step-by-step explanation:
1% of 40 is 0.4.
So, just multiply 0.4 by 12 to get 4.8
