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Helga [31]
4 years ago
12

According to lean manufacturing, a.the product moves from process to process until completion b.finished goods should always be

available in case a customer wants something c.employees should be expert at one function rather than be cross-trained for multiple functions d.movement of the product and material is reduced
Business
1 answer:
Elodia [21]4 years ago
3 0

Answer: Option (D)

Explanation:

Lean manufacturing also referred to as lean production is known as the systematic method or technique originally originated in Japanese manufacturing industry, mainly for the purpose of minimization of waste especially in manufacturing system, done without sacrificing any productivity, which can further cause problems.

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How old do you have to be to get a reverse mortgage
Murljashka [212]

Answer: Minimum 62 years

Explanation: As per the rules, the youngest borrower must have attained the age of 62 years to qualify for reverse mortgage loan. There are several other requirements as well.

HUD financial criteria also needs to be fulfilled by the borrower. The home in which borrowers be living must be their prime residence and the required home equity will also be required.

6 0
3 years ago
When experiences are insufficient and the risk of making a wrong decision i high, a consumer is more likely to use _____________
Aleksandr-060686 [28]

CORRECT ANSWER:

An external search.

STEP-BY-STEP EXPLANATION:

Where past experience or expertise is inadequate, there is a high risk of making a wrong buying decision and a low cost of gathering information. We have 3 primary sources.

The primary sources of external information are

1-personal sources

2-public sources

3- marketer-dominated sources

8 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Mantle Company has been in business several years. At the end of the current year; the unadjusted trial balance shows:
maksim [4K]

Answer:

  • a. Bad debts are estimated to be 7% of RECEIVABLES  

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 16.000

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 16.000

Explanation:

December 31  

Cr Sales Revenue $ 2.200.000

Dr Accounts Receivable  $ 310.000

Cr Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $ 5.700

 

a. Bad debts are estimated to be 7% of RECEIVABLES  

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 16.000

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 16.000

 

If the company applies the allowance method, it means that the account Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts must show as balance the % estimated of accounts receivables as CREDIT.  

Because the company already has a CREDIT balance in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts it's necessary to register an entry that complement the existing value and reflect the value as % of account receivable.  

 

Bad accounts are those credits granted by the company and there is no possibility of being charged.  

"When customers buy products on credits but the company cannot collect the debt, then it's necessary to cancel the unpaid invoice as uncollectible."  

One way is to directly cancel bad debts at the time it was decided that the credit is bad, the total amount reported as bad debt expenses negatively affect the income statement and the accounts receivable are reduced by the same amount, less assets  

 

The other way is to determine a percentage of the total amount of accounts receivable as bad debts, there are many ways to analyze accounts receivable and calculate the value of bad debts.  

When the company has the percentage of uncollectible accounts, the required journal entry is Bad Expenses (debit) with Reserve for Bad Accounts (credit)  

At the time of cancellation, since the expenses were recognized before, we only use the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (Debit)  with accounts receivable (credit), with this we are recognizing the bad credit of the company.  

8 0
3 years ago
Lincoln Park Co. has a bond outstanding with a coupon rate of 6.04 percent and semiannual payments. The yield to maturity is 6.1
Reil [10]

Answer:

value of the bond = $2,033.33

Explanation:

We know,

Value of the bond, B_{0} = [I * \frac{1 - (1 + i)^{-n}}{i}] + \frac{FV}{(1 + i)^n}

Here,

Face value of par value, FV = $2,000

Coupon payment, I = Face value or Par value × coupon rate

Coupon payment, I = $2,000 × 6.04%

Coupon payment, I = $128

yield to maturity, i = 6.1% = 0.061

number of years, n = 15

Therefore, putting the value in the formula, we can get,

B_{0} = [128 * \frac{1 - (1 + 0.061)^{-7}}{0.061}] + [\frac{2,000}{(1 + 0.061)^7}]

or, B_{0} = [128 * \frac{1 - (1.061)^{-7}}{0.061}] + [\frac{2,000}{(1.061)^7}]

or, B_{0} = [128 * \frac{0.3393}{0.061}] + 1,321.3635

or, B_{0} = [128 * 5.5623] + 1,321.3635

or, B_{0} = $711.9738 + 1,321.3635

Therefore, value of the bond = $2,033.33

3 0
4 years ago
What is short term debt?<br>​
nydimaria [60]

Answer:

Explanation:

short term debt is debt that needs to be paid off in a short term. for example bank loans

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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