A loss is when

After years of using a mass marketing strategy, Digital Print Shops has responded to new competition from national chain stores

Kisachek [45]

Answer:

The answer to this question is B. Niche marketing

Explanation:

Niche marketing involves identifying and exploiting a small segment of a larger market by developing products to suit it. identifying and exploiting a small segment of a larger market by developing products to suit it.

A niche market cater for the unique demands that aren't being addressed by mainstream providers. Organisations pursue niche markets as a way to build loyalty and revenue with a largely-overlooked audience.

We can therefore conclude from the explanation in the questions as regards the activities of Digital Print Shops that it using a Niche marketing strategy

Hence the answer is B. Niche marketing

4 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Diversified Semiconductors sells perishable electronic components. Some must be shipped and stored in reusable protective contai

sergejj [24]

Answer:

1. (a) Dr Cash $890,000

Cr Liability for refundable deposits $890,000

(b) Dr Liability for refundable deposits $827,000

Cr Cash $827,000

(c) Dr Liability for refundable deposits $56,750

Cr Sale of containers $56,750

(d) Dr Cost of goods sold $56,750

Cr Inventory of containers $56,750

2.$601,250

Explanation:

1.Preparationof the appropriate journal entries for the deposits received, returned, and forfeited during 2021.

(a) Dr Cash $890,000

Cr Liability for refundable deposits $890,000

(b) Dr Liability for refundable deposits $827,000

Cr Cash $827,000

(c) Dr Liability for refundable deposits $56,750

Cr Sale of containers $56,750

(d) Dr Cost of goods sold $56,750

Cr Inventory of containers $56,750

2. Calculation to determine the liability for refundable deposits to be reported on the December 31, 2021, balance sheet.

Using this formula

Ending liability for refundable deposits = Liability for refundable deposits, January 1, 2021 + Deposits received during 2021 - Deposits returned during 2018 - Deposits forfeited during 2021

Let plug in the formula

Ending liability for refundable deposits= $595,000 + $890,000 - $827,000 - $56,750

Ending liability for refundable deposits= $601,250

Therefore the liability for refundable deposits to be reported on the December 31, 2021, balance sheet is $601,250

7 0

3 years ago

The Welding Department of Healthy Company has the following production and manufacturing cost data for February 2020. All materi

larisa [96]

Answer:

Welding Department

Production cost report for the month of February

Inputs :

Beginning Work In Process :

Materials $18,100

Conversion costs $14,460

Added During the year :

Materials $218,685

Labor $67,100

Overhead $58,531

Total $376,876

Outputs :

Completed and Transferred Out $328,000

Units still in Process $48,076

Total $376,876

Explanation:

Calculation of Equivalent Units of Production with Respect to Materials and Conversion Costs.

1. Materials

Ending Work In Process (11,900 × 100%) 11,900

Units Completed and Transferred Out (54,800 × 100%) 54,800

Equivalent Units of Production with Respect to Materials 66,700

2. Conversion Costs

Ending Work In Process (11,900 × 1/5) 2,380

Units Completed and Transferred Out (54,800 × 100%) 54,800

Equivalent Units of Production with Respect to Materials 57,180

Calculation of Cost per Equivalent Unit of Production with Respect to Materials and Conversion Costs.

Cost per Equivalent Unit = Total Cost ÷ Total Equivalent Units

1. Materials

Cost per Equivalent Unit = ($18,100 + $218,685) ÷ 66,700

= $3.55

2. Conversion Cost

Cost per Equivalent Unit = ($14,460 + $67,100 + $58,531) ÷ 57,180

= $2.45

3. Total Cost

Total Cost = Materials + Conversion Cost

= $3.55 + $2.45

= $6.00

Calculation of Total Cost of Units Completed and Transferred Out and Total Cost of Units still in Process.

Completed and Transferred Out = Units Completed and Transferred Out × Total Cost

= 54,800 × $6.00

= $328,000

Units still in Process = Material Cost + Conversion Cost

= $3.55 × 11,900 + $2.45 × 2,380

= $48,076

7 0

3 years ago

We observe the following annualized yields on four Treasury securities: (75%)

Anon25 [30]

Answer:

Explanation:

1.

From the given information;

The spot rate for maturity at 0.5 year $(X_1) = 4\%/2 = 2\%$

The spot rate for maturity at 1 year is:

= $\dfrac{22.5}{(1+X_1)}+ \dfrac{1000 + 22.5}{(1+X_2)^2}=1000$

= $\dfrac{22.5}{(1+0.02)}+ \dfrac{1000 + 22.5}{(1+X_2)^2}=1000$

= $\dfrac{22.5}{(1+0.02)}+ \dfrac{1022.5}{(1+X_2)^2}=1000$

By solving for $X_2$ ;

$X_2$ = 2.253%

The spot rate for maturity at 1.5 years is:

$= \dfrac{25}{(1+X_1)}+ \dfrac{25}{(1+X_2)^2}+ \dfrac{1000 + 25}{(1+X_3)^3}=1000$

Solving for $X_3$

$X_3$ = 2.510%

The spot rate for maturity at 2 years is:

$= \dfrac{27.5}{(1+X_1)}+ \dfrac{27.5}{(1+X_2)^2}+ \dfrac{27.5}{(1+X_3)^3} +\dfrac{1000+27.5}{(1+X_4)^4} =1000$

By solving for $X_4$ ;

$X_4$ = 2.770%

Recall that:

Coupon rate = yield to maturity for par bond.

Thus, the annual coupon rates are 4%, 4.5%, 5%, and 5.5% for 0.5, 1, 1.5, 2 years respectively.

2.

For n years, the price of n-bond is:

$= \dfrac{cash \ flow \ at \ year \ 1}{1+X_1}+ \dfrac{cash \ flow \ at \ year \ 2}{(1+X_2)^2}+... + \dfrac{cash \ flow \ at \ year \ b}{(1+X_n)^n}$

Thus, for 2 years bond implies 4 periods;

∴

$= \dfrac{40}{1+0.02}+ \dfrac{40}{(1+0.02253)^2} + \dfrac{40}{(1+0.0252)^3}+ \dfrac{40}{(1+0.0277)^4}$

= $1047.024

3.

Suppose there exist no-arbitrage, then the price is:

$= \dfrac{0}{(1+0.02)}+\dfrac{1000}{(1+0.02253)^2}$

= 956.4183

Since the market price < arbitrage price.

We then consider 0.5, 1-year bonds from the portfolio

Now;

weight 2 × 1000 + weight 2 × 22.5 = 1000

weight 2 × 1022.5 = 1000

weight 2 = 1022.5/1000

weight 2 = 0.976

weight 1 + weight 2 = 1

weight 1 = 1 - weight 2

weight 1 = 1 - 0.976

weight 1 = 0.022

The price of a 0.5-year bond will be:

$= \dfrac{1000}{(1+0.02\%)} \\ \\ =\mathbf{980.39}$

The price of a 1-year bond will be = 1000

Market value on the bond portfolio = 0.022 × price of 0.5 bond + 0.978 × price 1-year bond = 956.42

= 0.022 × 980.39 + 0.978 × 1000

= 956.42

So, to have arbitrage profit, the investor needs to purchase 1 unit of the 1-year zero-coupon bond as well as 0.022 units of the 0.5-year bond. Then sell 0.978 unit of the 1-year bond.

Then will he be able to have an arbitrage profit of $56.42

4.

The one-period ahead forward rates can be computed as follows:

Foward rate from 0 to 0.5 $X_1$ = 2%

Foward rate from 0.5 to 1

$(1+X_2)^2 = (1+X_1) \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 0.5 \ to \ 1 )$

$(1+0.0225)^2 = (1+0.02) \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 0.5 \ to \ 1 )$

Foward rate from 0.5 to 1 = 2.5%

Foward rate from 1 to 1.5

$(1+X_3)^3 = (1+X_2)^2 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1 \ to \ 1.5 )$

$(1+0.0251)^3 = (1+0.0225)^3 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1 \ to \ 1.5 )$

Foward rate from 1 to 1.5 =3.021%

Foward rate from 1.5 to 2

$(1+X_4)^4 = (1+X_3)^3 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1.5 \ to \ 2 )$

$(1+0.0277)^4 = (1+0.0251)^3 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1.5 \ to \ 2 )$

Foward rate from 1.5 to 2 =3.021%

5.

The expected price of the bond if the hypothesis hold :

= $\dfrac{40}{1+ 0.03021}+ \dfrac{1000+40}{(1+0.03285)^2}$

$= \dfrac{40}{(1.03021)}+ \dfrac{1040}{(1.03285)^2}}$

= 1013.724254

= 1013.72

4 0

3 years ago

Explain one situation when you will use these two pricing strategies penetration pricing and skimming prices

Dominik [7]

Answer:

An electronic news portal that offers one complimentary month for something like a free trial service or an institution that offers a free bank account for 6 months are both instances of penetration pricing.

A pricing technique known as price skimming is establishing a premium charge when other rivals enter the market. For instance, the Playstation 3 was initially priced at $599 in the United States, but has now been lowered to around $200.

5 0

3 years ago