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murzikaleks [220]
3 years ago
13

Given f(x) = 1/3(4 – x)^2 , what is the value of f(16)?

Mathematics
1 answer:
gayaneshka [121]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

48

Step-by-step explanation:

Plug in 16 to the function:

f(16)=1/3(4-16)^2

=1/3(-12)^2

=144(1/3)

=48

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If you make 8$ an hour and get a 10% raise what is your new hourly pay?
statuscvo [17]
Answer: 2.2% I’m not sure (ps. I’m really not sure like this is what I think it is butttt someone’s answer might be better so go with there’s)
5 0
2 years ago
I don’t really understand could you help
givi [52]

Answer:

M: (-7, -3)

A: (0, -3)

T: (0, -8)

Step-by-step explanation:

each of the points are associated with a letter. you can find the points by looking at the points it matches up with in the formatting of (x,y)

for example, for M, you can see that the dot on the x axis seems to be hovering below -7, on the y axis, it seems to be hovering next to -3. therefore, its (-7,-3)

7 0
3 years ago
The difference between the square roots of a number is 30. what is the answer?
Sveta_85 [38]
Since 30 is not a square root you would use the closest square roots √25 and √36 which makes your answer 5 and 6
6 0
3 years ago
Two dance teams, the Roses and the Tulips, are perfectly matched so that their chances of winning are both set at 50%. What is t
shtirl [24]

Answer:

6%

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1

The fist step is to define the probabilities.

The events are independent from each other. Each team wins with probability \frac{1}{2} and looses with probability \frac{1}{2}.  Let P(W_R) be probability that Roses win and P(L_R)  be the probability that Roses loose.

Step 2

The second step is to calculate the probabilities by multiplying the probabilities with the first 3 terms in the product being the probability of a win and the last term being the probability of a loss.

The calculation is shown below,

P(W_R)\times P(W_R)\times P(W_R)\times P(L_R)=\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{2} \times\frac{1}{2} \times\frac{1}{2} =\frac{1}{16}

Step 3

The last step is to convert this probability into a percentage. Converting this probability to a percentage is  done as shown below,

\frac{1}{16} \times 100\%=6.25\%.

Step 4

The next step is to round down the percentage . The value of 6.25% rounded down is 6%. The correct answer is 6%.


3 0
3 years ago
Pregnant women metabolize some drugs at a slower rate than the rest of the population. The half-life of caffeine is about 4 hour
UkoKoshka [18]

Answer:

Husband:

The husband will have 16.35 mg of caffeine in his body at 7 pm.

Woman:

The pregnant woman will have 51.33 mg of caffeine in her body at 7 pm.

Step-by-step explanation:

The amount of caffeine in the body can be modeled by the following equation:

C(t) = C(0)e^{rt}

In which C(t) is the amount of caffeine t hours after 8 am, C(0) is how much coffee they took and r is the rate the the amount of caffeine decreases in their bodies.

110 mg of caffeine at 8 am,

So C(0) = 110

Husband

Half life of 4 hours. So

C(4) = 0.5C(0) = 0.5*110 = 55

C(t) = C(0)e^{rt}

55 = 110e^{4r}

e^{4r} = 0.5

Applying ln to both sides

\ln{e^{4r}} = \ln{0.5}

4r = \ln{0.5}

r = \frac{\ln{0.5}}{4}

r = -0.1733

So for the husband

C(t) = 110e^{-0.1733t}

At 7 pm

7 pm is 11 hours after 8 am, so this is C(11)

C(t) = 110e^{-0.1733t}

C(11) = 110e^{-0.1733*11} = 16.35

The husband will have 16.35 mg of caffeine in his body at 7 pm.

Pregnant woman

Half life of 10 hours. So

C(10) = 0.5C(0) = 0.5*110 = 55

C(t) = C(0)e^{rt}

55 = 110e^{10}

e^{10r} = 0.5

Applying ln to both sides

\ln{e^{10r}} = \ln{0.5}

10r = \ln{0.5}

r = \frac{\ln{0.5}}{10}

r = -0.0693

At 7 pm

7 pm is 11 hours after 8 am, so this is C(11)

C(t) = 110e^{-0.0693t}

C(11) = 110e^{-0.0693*11} = 51.33

The pregnant woman will have 51.33 mg of caffeine in her body at 7 pm.

7 0
3 years ago
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