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inn [45]
3 years ago
8

For Each coin, state its worth as a percentage of $1?

Mathematics
2 answers:
djyliett [7]3 years ago
8 0
4. Is 250%, and 5. Is 500%

Explanation:
For #4, the coin is equal to $2 1/2, or $2.50. Since the question is asking the worth of each coin as a percentage of $1, $2.50 will be a percentage greater than 100%. $2.50 is 2.5x $1, so if $1 is seen as 100% in this problem, we can do 100 x 2.5. This is how you get the answer of 250%

You use the same method for question 5, except $5 is 5x $1, so we can do 100 x 5 to get 500%
Ratling [72]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:5. is 500%

Step-by-step explanation:

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y is directly proportional to x^3. it is known that =5 for a particular value of x. find the value of y when this value of y whe
alina1380 [7]

Answer:

The value of y when the value of x is multiplied by \frac{1}{2} is \frac{5}{8}.

Step-by-step explanation:

According to the statement, we have the following relationship:

y = k\cdot x^{3} (1)

Where:

x - Independent variable.

y - Dependent variable.

k - Proportionality constant.

We can eliminate the proportionality constant by constructing the following relationship:

\frac{y_{2}}{y_{1}} = \left(\frac{x_{2}}{x_{1}} \right)^{3}

If we know that y_{1} = y, y_{2} = 5, x_{2} = x_{o} and x_{1} = \frac{1}{2}\cdot x_{o}, then the value of y when the value of x is multiplied by \frac{1}{2} is:

\frac{5}{y} = \left(\frac{x_{o}}{\frac{1}{2}\cdot x_{o} } \right)^{3}

\frac{5}{y} = 8

y = \frac{5}{8}

The value of y when the value of x is multiplied by \frac{1}{2} is \frac{5}{8}.

5 0
2 years ago
Please solve! Simplify and write without parentheses!
Bogdan [553]
18y to the 20th power minus 90y to the fifth power
8 0
3 years ago
Isoke is solving the quadratic equation by completing the square.
Alexandra [31]

Step-by-step explanation:

10 is the value of A ......

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Step by step please and thank you.
cupoosta [38]

Answer:

  the probability is 2/9

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming the coins are randomly selected, the probability of pulling a dime first is the number of dimes (4) divided by the total number of coins (10).

  p(dime first) = 4/10 = 2/5

Then, having drawn a dime, there are 9 coins left, of which 5 are nickels. The probability of randomly choosing a nickel is 5/9.

The joint probability of these two events occurring sequentially is the product of their probabilities:

  p(dime then nickel) = (2/5)×(5/9) = 2/9

_____

<em>Alternate solution</em>

You can go at this another way. You can list all the pairs of coins that can be drawn. There are 90 of them: 10 first coins and, for each of those, 9 coins that can be chosen second. Of these 90 possibilities, there are 4 dimes that can be chosen first, and 5 nickels that can be chosen second, for a total of 20 possible dime-nickel choices out of the 90 total possible outcomes.

  p(dime/nickel) = 20/90 = 2/9

8 0
3 years ago
Please help asap
KengaRu [80]

Answer:

one

Step-by-step explanation:

they meet at only one point, thus their system of equations has as solution only those coordinates.

8 0
3 years ago
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