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Ahat [919]
3 years ago
11

Is this right!? correct answer only!! ANSWER ASAPPP i put -2/8​

Mathematics
1 answer:
andreev551 [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Yes, but can be simplified to -\frac{1}{4}

Step-by-step explanation:

Since slope is the formula to determine the equation of a line, we use,

\frac{rise}{run}

In this sense, we can see that the rise is -2

The run, or how far along the x-axis the line goes until it reaches its desired point is 8.

Although you are correct in the -\frac{2}{8}, don't forget to use your GCF to determine how low the fraction can go. (GCF or greatest common factor of 2 in this case) to get -\frac{1}{4}

I hope this answer finds you well, and I would be happy to help you again in the future! :D

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A tank is full of water. Find the work W required to pump the water out of the spout. (Use 9.8 for g and 3.14 for π. If you ente
OLEGan [10]
To answer the question above, we will have to use some calculus approach to this problem.


<span>volume of sphere = (4/3)(pi)(radius^3) = (4/3)(pi)(9^3) = 972pi </span>
<span>mass = (density)(volume) = (972pi)(1,000) = 972,000pi </span>
<span>force = (mass)(acceleration or gravity here) = (972,000pi)(9.8) = 9,525,600pi </span>
<span>work = (force)(distance) = (9,525,600pi)(4.5) = 42,865,200pi J 
</span>
I hope my answer helped you with your problem
6 0
3 years ago
What is the value of the expression i 0 × i 1 × i 2 × i 3 × i 4?
astraxan [27]
ANSWER


The value of the expression is
- 1


EXPLANATION

Method 1: Rewrite as product of
{i}^{2}


The expression given to us is,

{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}


We use the fact that
{i}^{2}  =  - 1
to simplify the above expression.



{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  {i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{3}   \times {i}^{2}   \times {i}^{4}


This implies,


{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  {i}^{0}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{2}   \times {i}^{2}   \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2}


We substitute to obtain,

{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  1\times  - 1 \times  - 1  \times  - 1\times  - 1 \times  - 1


{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  1\times  1 \times   1  \times  - 1 =  - 1


Method 2: Use indices to solve.



{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  = {i}^{0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 4}



This implies that,


{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  = {i}^{10}




{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  (  {{i}^{2}} )^{5}


{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  (   - 1 )^{5}   =  - 1


8 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Help ................
gulaghasi [49]
I think it's the second answer...
3 0
3 years ago
Marge cut 16 pieces of tape for mounting pictures on posterboard each piece of tape is 3/8 inches long how much tape did Marge u
daser333 [38]

Answer:

6 inches of tape

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the total amount of tape that Marge used, you can take the measure of each piece (\frac{3}{8}) and multiply by the total number of pieces cut (16):

\frac{3}{8}*\frac{16}{1}=\frac{48}{8}=6inches

So, Marge used 6 inches of tape altogether.

7 0
3 years ago
How many decibels is this? show work​
slavikrds [6]

Answer:

  • <u>115 dB</u>

Explanation:

<u>1. Given equation:</u>

\beta =10log(\frac{I}{I_0})\\\\ I_0=10^{-12}W/m^2

<u>2. Given intensity:</u>

I=0.315W/m^2

<u>3. Decibels</u>

\beta =10log(0.315/10^{-12})\\ \\ \beta =10log(315,000,000,000)\\ \\ \beta =10(11.498)=114.98\approx 115

4 0
3 years ago
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