Is this right!? correct answer only!! ANSWER ASAPPP i put -2/8

Mathematics

1 answer:

andreev551 [17]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Yes, but can be simplified to $-\frac{1}{4}$

Step-by-step explanation:

Since slope is the formula to determine the equation of a line, we use,

$\frac{rise}{run}$

In this sense, we can see that the rise is -2

The run, or how far along the x-axis the line goes until it reaches its desired point is 8.

Although you are correct in the $-\frac{2}{8}$ , don't forget to use your GCF to determine how low the fraction can go. (GCF or greatest common factor of 2 in this case) to get $-\frac{1}{4}$

I hope this answer finds you well, and I would be happy to help you again in the future! :D

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A tank is full of water. Find the work W required to pump the water out of the spout. (Use 9.8 for g and 3.14 for π. If you ente

OLEGan [10]

To answer the question above, we will have to use some calculus approach to this problem.

volume of sphere = (4/3)(pi)(radius^3) = (4/3)(pi)(9^3) = 972pi 
mass = (density)(volume) = (972pi)(1,000) = 972,000pi 
force = (mass)(acceleration or gravity here) = (972,000pi)(9.8) = 9,525,600pi 
work = (force)(distance) = (9,525,600pi)(4.5) = 42,865,200pi J

I hope my answer helped you with your problem

6 0

3 years ago

What is the value of the expression i 0 × i 1 × i 2 × i 3 × i 4?

astraxan [27]

ANSWER

The value of the expression is
$- 1$

EXPLANATION

Method 1: Rewrite as product of
${i}^{2}$

The expression given to us is,

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4}$

We use the fact that
${i}^{2} = - 1$
to simplify the above expression.

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = {i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{4}$

This implies,

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = {i}^{0} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2}$

We substitute to obtain,

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = 1\times - 1 \times - 1 \times - 1\times - 1 \times - 1$

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = 1\times 1 \times 1 \times - 1 = - 1$

Method 2: Use indices to solve.

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = {i}^{0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 4}$

This implies that,

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = {i}^{10}$

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = ( {{i}^{2}} )^{5}$

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = ( - 1 )^{5} = - 1$

8 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Help ................

gulaghasi [49]

I think it's the second answer...

3 0

3 years ago

Marge cut 16 pieces of tape for mounting pictures on posterboard each piece of tape is 3/8 inches long how much tape did Marge u

daser333 [38]

Answer:

6 inches of tape

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the total amount of tape that Marge used, you can take the measure of each piece ( $\frac{3}{8}$ ) and multiply by the total number of pieces cut (16):