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blagie [28]
3 years ago
10

A spinner is broken into section labeled 1 to 38. What is the probability that.On your next spin, that you will spin a 1?

Mathematics
1 answer:
VashaNatasha [74]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

1/38

Step-by-step explanation:

Given :

Probability = required outcome / Total possible outcomes

Total possible outcomes = total Numbe rod sections = 38

Required outcome = number of 1's on the entire section = 1

Hence, the probability of spinning a one equals :

P(spinning a 1) = 1 / 38

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4 0
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How can I solve the following equation: <br>3n/2-n/4=7n+4/12
devlian [24]
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12 (3n/2-n/4=7n+4/12) factored in 12 to both sides to get rid of fractions
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6 0
3 years ago
Need help, please and thank you
Dmitriy789 [7]
Ok, so x=48 so now you have to solve
3(48) + 17= EFG
3×48=144
144+17=161
so angle EFG is 161
and now you subtract 161 from 180 to get angle LMN
which is 19
BUT we still have to check
1/2 (48)-5=LMN
1/2=0.5
0.5×48=24
24-5=19
so angle LMN is 19
answers: EFG; 161
LMN; 19
8 0
3 years ago
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