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Elanso [62]
3 years ago
5

PLEASE HELP AND TELL ME HOW YOU DID IT I HAVE TO SHOW work !! Jeans are on sale for 40% off the jeans Justin wants to buy them m

arked with an original price of 80 what is the total cost in dollars for a pair of jeans at the sale price including a 7% tax
Mathematics
1 answer:
Harman [31]3 years ago
8 0
Okay, if the jeans were originally $80, take 40% off of that (40% of 80 is 32) so you’d get 48. Now take 48 and multiply by 1.07 (to get 107% of the $48, to find a percentage you can move the decimal place left 2 digits and multiply), so Justin would pay $51.36 in total.
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A lotion is made from an oil blend costing $1.50 per ounce and glycerin costing $1.00 per ounce. Four ounces of lotion costs $5.
yanalaym [24]
X-ounces of an oil blend,
y - ounces of glycerin
x + y = 4    ⇒   y = 4 - x
1.5 x + y = 5.50
1.5 x + 4 - x = 5.50
0.5 x = 5.50 - 4
0.5 x = 1.50
x = 3
y = 4 - 3 = 1
There are 3 ounces of an oil blend and 1 ounce of glycerin.
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3 years ago
The local newspaper has letters to the editor from 30 people. If this number represents 8% of all of the​ newspaper's readers, h
serious [3.7K]

Answer:375

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
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Question 3 (Multiples and Factors] Three numbers are given below. Use prime factorisation to determine the HCF and LCM 1848 132
Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Prime factorization involves rewriting numbers as products

The HCF and the LCM of 1848, 132 and 462​ are 66 and 1848 respectively

<h3>How to determine the HCF</h3>

The numbers are given as: 1848, 132 and 462

Using prime factorization, the numbers can be rewritten as:

1848 = 2^3 * 3 * 7 * 11

132 =  2^2 * 3 * 11

462 = 2 * 3 * 7 * 11

The HCF is the product of the highest factors

So, the HCF is:

HCF = 2 * 3 * 11

HCF = 66

<h3>How to determine the LCM</h3>

In (a), we have:

1848 = 2^3 * 3 * 7 * 11

132 =  2^2 * 3 * 11

462 = 2 * 3 * 7 * 11

So, the LCM is:

LCM = 2^3 * 3 * 7 * 11

LCM  = 1848

Hence, the HCF and the LCM of 1848, 132 and 462​ are 66 and 1848 respectively

Read more about prime factorization at:

brainly.com/question/9523814

4 0
2 years ago
Three cards are drawn from a standard deck of 52 cards without replacement. Find the probability that the first card is an ace,
MrRissso [65]

Answer:

4.82\cdot 10^{-4}

Step-by-step explanation:

In a deck of cart, we have:

a = 4 (aces)

t = 4 (three)

j = 4 (jacks)

And the total number of cards in the deck is

n = 52

So, the probability of drawing an ace as first cart is:

p(a)=\frac{a}{n}=\frac{4}{52}=\frac{1}{13}=0.0769

At the second drawing, the ace is not replaced within the deck. So the number of cards left in the deck is

n-1=51

Therefore, the probability of drawing a three at the 2nd draw is

p(t)=\frac{t}{n-1}=\frac{4}{51}=0.0784

Then, at the third draw, the previous 2 cards are not replaced, so there are now

n-2=50

cards in the deck. So, the probability of drawing a jack is

p(j)=\frac{j}{n-2}=\frac{4}{50}=0.08

Therefore, the total probability of drawing an ace, a three and then a jack is:

p(atj)=p(a)\cdot p(j) \cdot p(t)=0.0769\cdot 0.0784 \cdot 0.08 =4.82\cdot 10^{-4}

4 0
3 years ago
Given: A regular hexagon; M is the midpoint of angle NO and RP. Prove: Angle NRM = Angle OPM
gavmur [86]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Since it is a regular hexagon, the length of its sides are equal. And same as the distance across its flats.

So that;

NR ≅ OP (property of a regular polygon)

PM ≅ RM (half of the distance across flats of a polygon)

NM ≅ OM (half of the distance across flats of a polygon)

<NMR ≅ <PMO (vertically opposite angles)

<NRM ≅ <OPM (alternate angle property)

<RNM ≅ <POM (alternate angle property)

This therefore proves that: ΔNRM = ΔOPM

3 0
2 years ago
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