Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
50 dollars = ∉34
∉1 = Rs 150
Rs 382800 / 150 Rs per ∉ = 382800/150 ∉
=2552 ∉
50 dollars = ∉34 so 50/34 dollars = ∉
2552 ∉ × 50/34 dollar per ∉ = in the units the ∉ cancel out
∉ × dollar/∉ = dollars
(2552 × 50) / 34 = 3752.94 dollars <------------------
Here is another way of looking at the answer...........
Rs 382800 × 1∉/150 Rs × 50 dollars/34 ∉ = note how the units cancel
= 382800 × (1/150) × (50/34) Rs × ∉/Rs × dollars/∉
= 3,752.94 dollars leaving only dollars in the numerator
2/3 is 266.66% of 2/4.
(2/3)(1/4)=(2/3)(4/1)=8/3=2 2/3=2.6666=266.66
hope this helps!!
The Pythagorean theorem is a^2+b^2=c^2 where a and b are legs and c is the hypotenuse(longest side). you haven’t put a picture so I don’t know where 35 is a leg or the hypotenuse, but all you have to do is square the 2 shorter sides and add them and set it equal to the square of the longer side. You can do it!
For this case we must find 35% of 280.
Kerrie gets 10% and then 25%. So:
10% of 280:
280 ------------> 100%
x -----------------> 10%
Where "x" represents the amount given by 10% of 280.
Thus, 10% of 280 is 28.
Now, we find 25% of 280:
280 ------------> 100%
x -----------------> 25%
Where "x" represents the amount given by 25% of 280.
Thus, 25% of 280 is 70.
So we have that 35% of 280 is given by:
So, Kerrie's solution is correct.
Answer:
Option A
Please provide more context for our brains to understand your problem (: thank you!
