Answer:
Expected value of X = -11.09
Explanation:
Expected profit:
= Probability of winning × Amount she wins
= 0.03 × $180
= 5.4
Expected loss:
= Probability of loosing × Amount she paid
= 0.97 × $17
= 16.49
Let X be amount of money Mary wins or loses.
E(X) = Expected profit - Expected loss
= 5.4 - 16.49
= -11.09
Expected value of X = -11.09
That is expected value of loss of $11.09
Answer: 2%
Explanation:
As the coupon payments are semi-annual, you need to convert the other measures to semi-annual measures as well.
Coupon rate = 6%/2 = 3% per semi annum
Coupon payment = 3% * 1,000 which is par value = $30
Time to maturity = 12 * 2 = 24 semi annual periods
Price is still the same = $1,189.14
You can use an Excel worksheet to solve for the Yield:
Number of periods = 24
Payment = $30
PV = 1,189.14
FV is par value of $1,000
Periodic rate is 0.019999
= 2%
Answer:
source-
One of the most common predictive models is the waterfall model. It assumes various phases in the SDLC that can occur sequentially, which implies that one phase leads into the next phase. In simple words, in waterfall model, all the phases take place one at a time and do not overlap one another.
in your own words-
One of the foremost common prognostic models is that the falls model. It assumes varied phases within the SDLC which will occur consecutive, which suggests that one section leads into following section. In straightforward words, in falls model, all the phases occur one at a time and don't overlap each other.
Explanation:
source is where i got the imformation and the in your own words is it fully rewritten, sorry its a bit lengthy and hope this helps have a god day/night/noon! :)
Answer:
A: $1,475,000
Explanation:
The computation of the overhead applied is shown below:
But before that first determine the predetermined overhead rate which is
= Estimated annual overhead cost ÷ Estimated machine hours
= $1,500,000 ÷ 300,000
= $5
Now the applied overhead is
= Predetermined overhead rate × Actual machine hours
= $5 × 295,000
= $1,475,000
