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WITCHER [35]
3 years ago
8

Kay claims that dividing by 1/5 is the same thing as multiplying by 5. Is she correct? Explain why or why not.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Sav [38]3 years ago
7 0
Kay is 100% correct.  Remember the rule?  To divide by a fraction, invert the fraction and then multiply.

To divide 8 by 1/5, invert the fraction (which is 1/5) and multiply:  8*5/1 = 40.
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