3 years ago

PLEASE ANSWER I WILL GIVE YOU BRAINIEST!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

2 answers:

8 0

Answer:

im sure its the graph 3

sorry if im wrong

8 0

Graph 3 for sure. i did this one

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Otrada [13]

The answer is:

explaination:

7 0

3 years ago

Marysya12 [62]

D it the answer you have to multiply each one

4 0

4 years ago

Vladimir79 [104]

You would multiply the weekly amount by the number of weeks (w) and add that to the one time fee:

t = 90w + 80

7 0

3 years ago

stiv31 [10]

If 100% is 8590$
Than 1% is 85.9$
3% is then 257.7$

5 0

4 years ago

Yanka [14]

Answer:

x = 9.6 in

Step-by-step explanation:

The scale factor is 8:10 (difference in length.) This is simplified down to 4:5.

Method 1 (easier):

4/5 × 12 = 9.6 in.

Method 2 (harder but more comprehensive):

$\frac{10}{12} \times \frac{8}{x}$

<em>cross-multiply</em>

8 0

3 years ago