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asambeis [7]
3 years ago
10

Answer this question

Mathematics
1 answer:
aleksandrvk [35]3 years ago
7 0
I’m not sure how to type this but here’s the answer! Have a good day

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A common practice of airline companies is to sell more tickets for a particular flight than there are seats on the​ plane, becau
Serga [27]

Answer:

0.0159

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that a common practice of airline companies is to sell more tickets for a particular flight than there are seats on the​ plane, because customers who buy tickets do not always show up for the flight.

Here if X is the no of persons that do not show up, then X is binomial as each trial is independent with p = 0.04 and n =150 (no of tickets sold)

The plane is overbooked if more than 150 show up

i.e. less than 2 do not show up

Hence  the probability that the airline overbooked this​ flight

=P(X

4 0
3 years ago
1 + tanx / 1 + cotx =2
Lera25 [3.4K]

Answer:

x = tan^(-1)((i sqrt(3))/2 + 1/2) + π n_1 for n_1 element Z

or x = tan^(-1)(-(i sqrt(3))/2 + 1/2) + π n_2 for n_2 element Z

Step-by-step explanation:

Solve for x:

1 + cot(x) + tan(x) = 2

Multiply both sides of 1 + cot(x) + tan(x) = 2 by tan(x):

1 + tan(x) + tan^2(x) = 2 tan(x)

Subtract 2 tan(x) from both sides:

1 - tan(x) + tan^2(x) = 0

Subtract 1 from both sides:

tan^2(x) - tan(x) = -1

Add 1/4 to both sides:

1/4 - tan(x) + tan^2(x) = -3/4

Write the left hand side as a square:

(tan(x) - 1/2)^2 = -3/4

Take the square root of both sides:

tan(x) - 1/2 = (i sqrt(3))/2 or tan(x) - 1/2 = -(i sqrt(3))/2

Add 1/2 to both sides:

tan(x) = 1/2 + (i sqrt(3))/2 or tan(x) - 1/2 = -(i sqrt(3))/2

Take the inverse tangent of both sides:

x = tan^(-1)((i sqrt(3))/2 + 1/2) + π n_1 for n_1 element Z

or tan(x) - 1/2 = -(i sqrt(3))/2

Add 1/2 to both sides:

x = tan^(-1)((i sqrt(3))/2 + 1/2) + π n_1 for n_1 element Z

or tan(x) = 1/2 - (i sqrt(3))/2

Take the inverse tangent of both sides:

Answer:  x = tan^(-1)((i sqrt(3))/2 + 1/2) + π n_1 for n_1 element Z

or x = tan^(-1)(-(i sqrt(3))/2 + 1/2) + π n_2 for n_2 element Z

4 0
3 years ago
The axis of symmetry for the function f(x) = –2x2 + 4x + 1 is the line x = 1. Where is the vertex of the function located?
egoroff_w [7]

Answer:

(1, 3)

Step-by-step explanation:

You are given the h coordinate of the vertex as 1, but in order to find the k coordinate, you have to complete the square on the parabola.  The first few steps are as follows.  Set the parabola equal to 0 so you can solve for the vertex.  Separate the x terms from the constant by moving the constant to the other side of the equals sign.  The coefficient HAS to be a +1 (ours is a -2 so we have to factor it out).  Let's start there.  The first 2 steps result in this polynomial:

-2x^2+4x=-1.  Now we factor out the -2:

-2(x^2-2x)=-1.  Now we complete the square.  This process is to take half the linear term, square it, and add it to both sides.  Our linear term is 2x.  Half of 2 is 1, and 1 squared is 1.  We add 1 into the set of parenthesis.  But we actually added into the parenthesis is +1(-2).  The -2 out front is a multiplier and we cannot ignore it.  Adding in to both sides looks like this:

-2(x^2-2x+1)=-1-2.  Simplifying gives us this:

-2(x^2-2x+1)=-3

On the left we have created a perfect square binomial which reflects the h coordinate of the vertex.  Stating this binomial and moving the -3 over by addition and setting the polynomial equal to y:

-2(x-1)^2+3=y

From this form,

y=-a(x-h)^2+k

you can determine the coordinates of the vertex to be (1, 3)

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Use the quadratic formula to find the solutions to the quadratic equation
wlad13 [49]
3*2=6
6-x-2=0
4=x
The answer is 4
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Do think it is A, B, C, D?
LiRa [457]

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

the 80*10=800

8 in 183= 80

8 in 4879 = 800

7 0
3 years ago
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