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seropon [69]
2 years ago
10

A prospective MBA student earns $45,000 per year in her current job and expects that amount to increase by 12% per year. She is

considering leaving her job to attend business school for two years at a cost of $35,000 per year. She has been told that her starting salary after business school is likely to be $115,000 and that amount will increase by 11% per year. Consider a time horizon of 10 years, use a discount rate of 12%, and ignore all considerations not explicitly mentioned here. Assume all cash flows occur at the start of each year (i.e., immediate, one year from now, two years from now,..., nine years from now). Also assume that the choice can be implemented immediately so that for the MBA alternative the current year is the first year of business school. What is the net present value of the more attractive choice? Please round your answer to the nearest dollar.
Business
1 answer:
jeka942 years ago
5 0

Answer:

She is considering leaving her job to attend business school for two years at a cost of $35,000 per year. She has been told that her starting salary after business school is likely to be $115,000 a day

Explanation:

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A client sustained a head injury when falling off of a ladder. While in the hospital, the client begins voiding large amounts of
dexar [7]

Answer:

The client should be tested for <em>Diabetes insipidus (DI)</em>

Explanation:

Literally, Diabetes insipidus (DI) is an uncommon disorder that causes an imbalance of fluids in the body. It is a rare condition that causes the body to make a lot of insipid urine. Alongside with lots of urination, this condition is characterized by an increased thirst.

<em>Other symptoms are</em>

  • Dry skin.
  • Constipation.
  • Weak muscles.
  • Bedwetting.

It is most likely that the client's kidneys can no longer concentrate the urine normally, hence; the reason why large amount of dilute urine is excreted.

If left untreated, diabetes insipidus can lead to brain damage and poor growth.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Assume an organization's current service level on order fill is as follows:
frosja888 [35]

Answer:

Answer for the question:

Assume an organization's current service level on order fill is as follows:

Current order fill 80%

Number of orders per year 5,000

Percent of unfilled orders back-ordered 70%

Percent of unfilled orders cancelled 30%

Back order costs per order $150

Lost pretax profit per cancelled order $12,500

a) What is the lost cash flow to the seller at this 80 percent service level?

b) What would be the resulting increase in cash flow if the seller improved order fill to 92 percent

c) If the seller invested $2 million to produce this increased service level, would the investment be justified financially?

d) What is the role of activity-based costing in customer relationship management? In customer segmentation?

is given in the attachment.

Explanation:

Download pdf
7 0
2 years ago
Brownley Company has two service departments and two operating (production) departments. The Payroll Department services all thr
Fittoniya [83]

Answer:

d. $29,580.

Explanation:

Note: The data in the question are merged together and they are first sorted and separated as given in the attached file before the question is answered.

Cost individually incurred by Maintenance = $25,500

Share of Payroll Department cost = $20,400 * (15/75) = $4,080

Total Maintenance Cost = $25,500 + $4,080 = $29,580.

Therefore, he total cost of operating the Maintenance Department for the current period is d. $29,580.

Download pdf
7 0
3 years ago
Problem 9-7B Calculate the issue price of a bond and prepare amortization schedules (LO9-5, 9-7) [The following information appl
andrey2020 [161]

Answer:

Answer is given below.

Explanation:

Solution 1:

Chart Values are based on:      

n= (15 Years*2) 30 Half years

i= (7%/2) 3.50% Semi annual

Cash Flow Table Value * Amount = Present Value

Principal 0.356278 * $7,90,000 = $2,81,460

Interest (Annuity) [$790,000*7%*6/12] 18.392045 * $27,650 = $5,08,540

Price of Bonds  $7,90,000

Bond Amortization Schedule

Date Cash interest Interest Expense Chanage in Carrying Value Carrying value

01-Jan-21    $7,90,000

30-Jun-21 $27,650 $27,650 $0 $7,90,000

31-Dec-21 $27,650 $27,650 $0 $7,90,000

Solution 2:

Chart Values are based on:      

n= (15 Years*2) 30 Half years

i= (8%/2) 4.00% Semi annual

Cash Flow Table Value * Amount = Present Value

Principal 0.308319 * $7,90,000 = $2,43,572

Interest (Annuity) [$790,000*7%*6/12] 17.292033 * $27,650 = $4,78,125

Price of Bonds  $7,21,696

Bond Amortization Schedule

Date Cash interest Interest Expense Change in Carrying Value Carrying value

01-Jan-21    $7,21,696

30-Jun-21 $27,650 $28,868 $1,218 $7,22,914

31-Dec-21 $27,650 $28,917 $1,267 $7,24,181

Solution 3:

Chart Values are based on:      

n= (15 Years*2) 30 Half years

i= (6%/2) 3.00% Semi annual

Cash Flow Table Value * Amount = Present Value

Principal 0.411987 * $7,90,000 = $3,25,470

Interest (Annuity) [$790,000*7%*6/12] 19.600441 * $27,650 = $5,41,952

Price of Bonds  $8,67,422

Bond Amortization Schedule

Date Cash interest Interest Expense Change in Carrying Value Carrying value

01-Jan-21    $8,67,422

30-Jun-21 $27,650 $26,023 -$1,627 $8,65,794

31-Dec-21 $27,650 $25,974 -$1,676 $8,64,118

Download pdf
4 0
3 years ago
why is allowance for doubtful accounts credited, instead of accounts receivable, when recording the adjusting entry for bad debt
alukav5142 [94]

The allowance for doubtful accounts credited, instead of accounts receivable when recording the adjusting entry for bad debts  Because accounts receivable is made up of numerous client accounts, it cannot be credited unless it is known which particular customer will not pay.

The provision for questionable accounts is referred to as a "counter asset" since it reduces the value of an asset, in this example, the accounts receivable. The compensation, often known as a doubtful account, is management's projection of the amount of accounts receivable that customers will not pay. Let's assume, using the aforementioned example, that on June 30 a business reports an accounts receivable debit balance of $1,000,000. The business predicts that $50,000 will not be converted into cash and expects some consumers won't be able to pay the full amount.

learn more about  doubtful account visit brainly.com/question/28944789

#SPJ4

7 0
1 year ago
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