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garik1379 [7]
3 years ago
5

Mi hermano jueja al tenis ____________ (every now and then).

Mathematics
2 answers:
lesya [120]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

B. de vez en cuando.

Step-by-step explanation:

dem82 [27]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

B. de vez en cuando

Step-by-step explanation:

the literal transalation for "every now and then" in spanish is de vez en cuando.  Plus im am a native spanish speaker ;)

You might be interested in
Y=-3x^2-6x+24
Lera25 [3.4K]
The x-intercept is the point at which the function intersects the x-axis.
For any point on the x-axis, y = 0. Thus we can plug in 0 for y and solve for x.

y=-3x^2-6x+24 \\ 0=-3x^2-6x+24

Let's split the middle on this quadratic.
To do this we need to find two numbers that add to equal -6 and multiply to equal -72. (-3 times 24)
Consider ways to multiply to get 72.
72 = 36 ×2...that's not going to work.
72 = 24 × 3
72 = 18 × 4
72 = 12 × 6...and 12 minus 6 is 6!
Let's add our signs; our numbers are -12 and 6.
Now, split the middle and factor.

0=-3x^2-12x+6x+24\\0=-3x(x+4)+6(x+4)\\0=(-3x+6)(x+4)

Now you should know that anything multiplied by zero is zero.
So any value that makes one of those factors equal zero is an x-intercept.
Solve each of these equations.

-3x+6 = 0
-3x = -6
x = 2

x+4 = 0
x = -4

Oh, and since all parabolas (graphs of quadratics) are symmetrical, our axis of symmetry will be the average between the two, which is x=-1.

Now for our y-intercepts. For any points on the y-axis, x=0, so if we plug in 0 for x and solve for y we'll get our y-intercept.

y = -3×0² - 6×0 + 24
y = 0 - 0 + 24
y = 24

What about our vertex? Well, we know it's going to line up with the axis of symmetry, so let's just plug in -1 for x.

y = -3×-1² - 6×-1 + 24
y = -3×1 -6×-1 + 24
y = -3 + 6 + 24
y = 27

Thus the vertex is (-1, 27)

The y value is not going to exceed 27, as this is a decreasing quadratic, (we already know y=24 is a possibilty) and this equation goes downwards infinitely, so our range is (-∞, 27)

As for x, well, it's sort of the input for our equation, meaning it can be whatever we want it to be. Thus the domain is (-∞, ∞)




3 0
3 years ago
Find the volume of a sphere
lukranit [14]

v=4/3 πr^3.

Use this formula

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A ski resort claims that there is a 75% chance of snow on any given day in january and that snowfall happens independently from
lys-0071 [83]

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that the mean and the standard deviation of variable x are given as follows:

\mu = 3, \sigma = 0.87

<h3>What is the binomial probability distribution?</h3>

It is the probability of exactly <u>x successes on n repeated trials, with p probability</u> of a success on each trial.

The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

E(X) = np

The standard deviation of the binomial distribution is:

\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)}

In this problem, we have that the parameters are given as follows:

n = 4, p = 0.75.

Hence the mean and the standard deviation are given as follows:

  • E(X) = np = 4 x 0.75 = 3.
  • \sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)} = \sqrt{4 \times 0.75 \times 0.25} = 0.87

More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377

#SPJ1

7 0
2 years ago
16. A telemarketer makes six phone calls per hour and is able to make a sale on 30% of these contacts. During the next two hours
Reika [66]

Answer:

a) 23.11% probability of making exactly four sales.

b) 1.38% probability of making no sales.

c) 16.78% probability of making exactly two sales.

d) The mean number of sales in the two-hour period is 3.6.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each phone call, there are only two possible outcomes. Either a sale is made, or it is not. The probability of a sale being made in a call is independent from other calls. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

A telemarketer makes six phone calls per hour and is able to make a sale on 30% of these contacts. During the next two hours, find:

Six calls per hour, 2 hours. So

n = 2*6 = 12

Sale on 30% of these calls, so p = 0.3

a. The probability of making exactly four sales.

This is P(X = 4).

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 4) = C_{12,4}.(0.3)^{4}.(0.7)^{8} = 0.2311

23.11% probability of making exactly four sales.

b. The probability of making no sales.

This is P(X = 0).

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{12,0}.(0.3)^{0}.(0.7)^{12} = 0.0138

1.38% probability of making no sales.

c. The probability of making exactly two sales.

This is P(X = 2).

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 2) = C_{12,2}.(0.3)^{2}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.1678

16.78% probability of making exactly two sales.

d. The mean number of sales in the two-hour period.

The mean of the binomia distribution is

E(X) = np

So

E(X) = 12*0.3 = 3.6

The mean number of sales in the two-hour period is 3.6.

4 0
3 years ago
Anyone know? the problem is #16
RoseWind [281]
Because they both have two angles tbat are the same size
3 0
3 years ago
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