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erik [133]
3 years ago
15

Why do you think it is so important for a résumé to be free of any grammar and spelling errors \

Business
2 answers:
velikii [3]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

So the people your trying to be hired by think your smart.

Explanation:

If someone are tipe badd it make them look less intelligent. Such as the previous sentence makes me look like I know nothing.

BlackZzzverrR [31]3 years ago
8 0
It's important that your resume is free of grammar mistakes because it is a professional document. Your possible future employer will be reading it, and if you can't spell simple things right, like "they're/their/there" then they'll skip right over your application. Spelling errors make it seem like you're immature, and didn't proof read your resume before submitting.
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A corporation makes an investment of $20,000 that will provide the following cash flows after the corresponding amounts of time:
s344n2d4d5 [400]

A) The company should not invest in the provided project due to the negative NPV of the project.

B) The NPV of the project comes out to be (286).

<h3>What is NPV?</h3>

NPV is an abbreviated form of Net present value and computed by deducting the cash outflows from cash inflows at the present value.

Given values:

Cash flow of year 1: $10,000

Cash flow of year 2: $10,000

Cash flow of year 3: $2,000

Cash outflow (cost of investment) =$20,000

Step-1 Computation of PV of cash inflows of every year:

PV of year 1 = Cash inflow of year 1 / (1+ interest rate)^ 1

                    = $10,000 / (1+0.07) ^ 1

                    = $10,000 X 0.934579

                    = $9,346

PV of year 2 = Cash inflow of year 1 / (1+ interest rate)^ 2

                    = $10,000 / (1+0.07) ^ 2

                    = $10,000 X 0.873438

                    = $8,735

PV of year 3= Cash inflow of year 1 / (1+ interest rate)^ 3

                   = $2,000 / (1+0.07) ^ 2

                    = $2,000 X 0.816297

                    =$1,633

Step-2 Computation of total amount of PV of cash inflows:

\rm\ PV \rm\ of \rm\ cash \rm\ inflows = \rm\ PV \rm\  of \rm\  year \rm\  1 + \rm\  PV \rm\ of \rm\ year \rm\ 2 + \rm\ PV \rm\ of \rm\ year \rm\ 3\\\rm\ PV \rm\ of \rm\ cash \rm\ inflows =\$9,346 + \$8,735 + \$1,633\\\rm\ PV \rm\ of \rm\ cash \rm\ inflows =\$19,714

Step-3 Computation of NPV:

\rm\ NPV=\rm\ PV \rm\ of \rm\ cash \rm\ inflows- \rm\ Cost \rm\ of \rm\ investment\\\rm\ NPV=\$19,714-\$20,000\\\rm\ NPV=\$ (286)

Therefore, the NPV comes out to be a negative amount of 286, and hence, the company should not accept the project.

Learn more about the net present value in the related link:

brainly.com/question/14015430

#SPJ1

5 0
2 years ago
What do you think happens to the price of an object as it goes through a large number of intermediaries?
Mrac [35]
Because the manufacturer is also the entity selling the good or service, prices tend to be lower in a direct distribution channel. Indirect channels, on the other hand, generally see higher prices because of the number of intermediaries involved. The more there are, the higher the price.
6 0
3 years ago
3. Based on sales, what products do customers want? How accurately did the
PilotLPTM [1.2K]

Answer: Market survey

Explanation:

One of the ways to determine what customers want is my doing s survey. A survey would guide you through what they want. One of the ways to do this survey to get accurate answers is through questionnaire's, questionnaire's could be sent through mobile or advert or mails, asking what exactly what the customers want, from the feedback, the owner can predict accurately.

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following practices are not considered essential for a comprehensive JIT implementation: Uniform production (also k
bogdanovich [222]

Answer:

False ( "Large lot sizes" is not considered essential for JIT )

Explanation:

Just in time is an arrangement and alignment of raw material supply with the production process of the business. It minimizes the holding cost, lead time required for delivery of raw material, the setup times and sizes of orders.

The Large lot sizes is not a characteristics of JIT because it may requires the storage facility to place the large orders until used in production which might increase the holding cost.

So, Large Lot Sizes are not considered essential for a comprehensive JIT implementation.

4 0
4 years ago
On January 3, 2014, Trusty Delivery Service purchased a truck at a cost of $90,000. Before placing the truck in service, Trusty
likoan [24]

Answer:

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 - 5 under:

  • the Straight-line method is $90,000.
  • the Units-of-production method is $90,000.
  • the Double-declining-balance method is $86,170.

Explanation:

The total cost of the asset is $90,000 + $3,000 + $1,500 + $4,500 = $99,000, since all the other costs were directly attributable cost and were necessary to bring the asset to usable form.

  • The painting is capitalized because it is the first time Trust Delivery would be using the asset, otherwise it would have been expended
  • Overhauling cost can be regarded as a separate asset, if we were provided with different useful lives - componentization.

Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / No of years = ($99,000 - $9,000) / 5 years = $18,000 yearly depreciation expense.

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 to 5 is $18,000 x 5 years $90,000.

The unit-of-production method is used when the asset value closely relates to the units of output it is able to produce. It is expressed with the formula below:

(Original Cost - Salvage value) / Estimated production capacity x Units/year

At Year 1, depreciation expense (DE) is: ($99,000 - $9,000) / 100,000 miles x 22,500 miles = $20,250/year

Accumulated depreciation for the first four years is $20,250 x 4 years = $81,000.

At Year 5, depreciation = $90,000 / 100,000 miles x 10,000 miles = $9,000

Note that this depreciation method results in higher depreciation charge when the asset is heavily used, at this time, it was in Years 1 - 4.

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 5, under this method, is $90,000 (addition of first four years and the Year 5).

The double-declining method is otherwise known as the reducing balance method and is given by the formula below:

Double declining method = 2 X SLDP X BV

SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

BV = Book value

SLDP is 100%/5years = 20%, then 20% multiplied by 2 to give 40%

At Year 1, 40% X $99,000 = $39,600

At Year 2, 40% X $59,400 ($99,000 - $39,600) = $23,760

At Year 3, 40% X $35,640 ($59,400 - $23,760) = $14,256

At Year 4, 40% X $21,384 ($35,640 - $14,256) = $8,554 approximately (the depreciation expense would stop at this stage since the amount falls below the residual value).

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $86,170 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

7 0
3 years ago
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