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kumpel [21]
3 years ago
15

On 1/1/2020, Studebaker Corp. had an Accounts Receivable balance of $500,000 and an Allowance for Doubtful Accounts balance of $

30,000. During 2020, Studebaker made credit sales of $4,000,000 and cash collections of $4,100,000. Also during 2020, Studebaker wrote off uncollectible accounts receivable totaling $28,000. Based on an aging schedule, uncollectible amounts are estimated to total $35,000 as of 12/31/2020. Studebaker uses the Aging Schedule approach to recording bad debt expense. The adjusting journal entry to record Bad Debt Expense for 2020 includes a debit to Bad Debt Expense of
Business
1 answer:
matrenka [14]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Bad Debt expense $28,000.

Explanation:

Bad debts are the noncollectable amount of receivables which are not recovered. Companies usually maintain an allowance for uncollected receivables as doubtful debts or bad debts. The expense is recorded when there is no hope left for collection of these debts. Studebaker has estimated its bad debts to be 38,000 but it wrote off $28,000 which is the actual expense.

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Assume that your firm consists of Division 1 (40 percent of the firm) and Division 2 (60 percent of the firm). The capital struc
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

Explanation:

Before starting, we need to convert unlevered beta into levered beta:

Levered beta of Division 1: 1.2 x ( 1 + (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.38

Leverage beta of Division 2: 1.46 x ( 1+ (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.679

Then, we start step by step as below:

First, using the CAPM model: Cost of equity = risk-free rate of return +  beta *(Market Rate of Return – Risk-free Rate of Return) , we find the cost of equity for Division 1 and Division 2.

  - Division 1's cost of Equity = 4% + 1.38 x( 12% -4%) = 15.04%

  - Division 2's cost of equity = 4% + 1.46 x (12% - 4%) = 17.432%

Second, determine the post-tax cost of debt applied for both Division: 6% x (1-tax rate) = 6% x (1 -40%) = 3.60%

Third, calculate the WACC for each Division:

  - Division 1's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 15.04% = 11.752%;

  - Division 2's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 17.432% = 14.6656%;

Finally, compare the WACC between the two Division:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A bond with a face value of $6,000 and an annual coupon rate of 12% convertible semiannually will mature in ten years for its fa
Alinara [238K]

Answer:

Premium is $2,677.95

The premium amortization on the 7th payment is $119

Explanation:

In order to arrive at the premium on the bond,it is necessary to compute the issuing price of the bond,which can be done using the pv formula in excel as shown below:

=-pv(rate,nper,pmt,fv)

rate is the semi-annual yield to maturity on the bond which is 6%/2=3%

nper is the number of coupon interest payable by the bond,which is 10 years multiplied by 2=20

pmt is the semi-annual coupon payable by the  bond i.e 12%/2*$6000=$360

fv is the face value of the bond which is $6,000

=-pv(3%,20,360,6000)

pv=$8,677.95  

premium=issue price -face value

premium=$$8,677.95-$6,000

premium=$2,677.95

The premium amortization is the excess of coupon payment  over the interest expense.

In the attached, I calculated the premium amortization on the 7th payment.

I started by taking the issue price of $8677.95 ,added interest expense at 3% semi-annually ,deducted the coupon payment of $360,thereby leaving the outstanding balance at end of the year.

Note that the premium amortization is the excess of coupon payment over interest expense as colored coded.

Download xlsx
5 0
3 years ago
Suppose there are two cities that have rent controlled apartments. In one city (Albany) all apartments are subject to rent contr
PilotLPTM [1.2K]

Answer:

Which of the following is most likely to be true?

A

Explanation:

A) It will be difficult to find a rent-controlled apartment in Albany or Halftrack; rents for the Halftrack apartments not subject to controls will be higher than they would be without rent control

4 0
3 years ago
When a route in a transportation problem is unacceptable, the corresponding variable can be removed from the LP formulation. Tru
GenaCL600 [577]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
On the basis of the following data, what is the estimated cost of the merchandise inventory on May 31 using the retail method?
Misha Larkins [42]

Answer: The ending inventory is $43,500

Explanation:

Cost. Retail

$ $

Beginning inventory. 125,000 166,667

Add :Purchases 235,000 313,333

-------------------- -----------------------

Cost of good available for sale 360,000 480,000

Cost to retail ratio

360,000 ÷ 480,000

= 0.75

Cost. Retail

$ $

Cost of good available for sale 360,000 480,000

Less:Sales. 230,000 250,000

360,000. 172,500

187,500

-------------------- ----------------

(417,500) 58,000

Ending inventory × 0.75 (58,000 × 0.75) = 43,500

Cost to retail ratio.

Ending inventory. $43,500

3 0
3 years ago
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