Part A:
To get the interest of 1 year
Multiply 20,000 by 5% or 0.05
You get $1,000
Thats the amount for 1 year, now to get for 4 years, multiply 1,000, by 4
She pays $4,000 in interest
Part B:
If she pays it off in 2 years, instead of 4 years, she will pay an interest of $2,000, divide 4 by 2
Part C:
This is the same as part b, she saves $2,000
Hope this helps
-GoldenWolfX
1a) f(x) = I x+2 I. This is a piece-wise graph ( V form)
x = 0 →f(x) =2 (intercept y-axis)
x = -2→f(x) = 0 (intercept x-axis)
x = -3→f(x) = 1 (don't forget this is in absolute numbers)
x = -4→f(x) = 2 (don't forget this is in absolute numbers)
Now you can graph the V graph
1b) Translation: x to shift (-3) units and y remains the same, then
f(x-3) = I x - 3 + 2 I = I x-1 I
the V graph will shift one unit to the right, keeping the same y. Proof:
f(x) = I x-1 I . Intercept x-axis when I x-1 I = 0, so x= 1
Answer:
400 %
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
30%
Step-by-step explanation:
The answer is off by 30%, as the scale is off by 3 pounds. 3/10=30
Since the value of S is not given, and m is not given, It is already in its simplest form.
