Answer:let me know please
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
The point has a high leverage
Step-by-step explanation:
The point has a high leverage as it would act as an infinitesimal point that will have a very huge/drastic impact on the fit of the model, and this impact can be seen in such ways as listed below :
- Smaller coefficient of determination
- Higher sum of squares error
removing this point will eliminate these drastic impact and make the correlation to be better.
Answer:
v = 6
Step-by-step explanation:
Solve for v:
-8 (8 v + 1) - 2 = -394
-8 (8 v + 1) = -64 v - 8:
-64 v - 8 - 2 = -394
Grouping like terms, -64 v - 8 - 2 = -64 v + (-8 - 2):
-64 v + (-8 - 2) = -394
-8 - 2 = -10:
-10 - 64 v = -394
Add 10 to both sides:
(10 - 10) - 64 v = 10 - 394
10 - 10 = 0:
-64 v = 10 - 394
10 - 394 = -384:
-64 v = -384
Divide both sides of -64 v = -384 by -64:
(-64 v)/(-64) = (-384)/(-64)
(-64)/(-64) = 1:
v = (-384)/(-64)
The gcd of -384 and -64 is -64, so (-384)/(-64) = (-64×6)/(-64×1) = (-64)/(-64)×6 = 6:
Answer: v = 6
<span>
-4c - 11 = 4c +21 add 4c to both sides
</span>
<span>
-4c - 11 + 4c = 4c + 21 + 4c simplify
- 11 = 8c + 21</span> <span> subtract 21 from both sides
- 11 - 21 = 8c + 21 - 21 </span><span>simplify
- 32 = 8c divide both sides by 8
c = - 4That's it
</span>
I hope you got
the idea
