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Finger [1]
3 years ago
5

Ryan exchanged a car that he used in his business for the past 3 years for a new truck with a FMV of $25,000. This transaction t

ook place at the end of the year. The adjusted basis of the car was $8,000 at the beginning of the year of disposition. Ryan paid $4,000 cash and assumed a note payable of $10,000 to be paid in $2,000 increments over the next 5 years. Ryan’s depreciation on the car for the year of disposition was $2,500. What is the gain (loss) recognized on the transaction?
Business
1 answer:
alexandr1967 [171]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The gain on the transaction is $5,500

Explanation:

Gain on Transaction = Fair Value of Truck - Cash Paid - Note Payable - carrying value of car exchanged

= $25,000 - $4,000 - $10,000 - ( $8,000 - $2,500)  

= $25,000 - $4,000 - $10,000 - $5,500

= $5,500 Gain

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In Step 4, the EUP from Step 2 and the cost per EUP from Step 3 are used to assign costs to the:______ (You may select more than
Licemer1 [7]

Answer:

Option B. Units completed and transferred to finished goods

&

Option C. Units in ending work in process inventory

Explanation:

The reason is that the Equivalent units of Production that include number of units that would have been completed if all the efforts required were applied to the product completion which are the products started and finished during the period. The definition clearly states that the units considered would be the one that are shifted to finished goods from work in progress state in the current year or the one which is at work in progress state.

In the nutshell, the only units that would be considered in the assignment of the cost in the Step 4 will be either Work in Progress (Option C) or the Finished Goods that is shifted to Work in Progress (Option B).

7 0
3 years ago
Juicy Beauty manufactures and sells a face cream to small specialty stores in the greater Los Angeles area. It presents the mont
KatRina [158]

Answer: Please see explanation column for answer

Explanation:

Recasting  the income statement to emphasize contribution margin.

Juicy Beauty Operating Income Statement, June 2017

Units sold                                                            20,000

Revenues                                                         $200,000

Variable costs(subtract):

Variable manufacturing costs    $110,000

Variable marketing costs             $10,000

Total variable costs                                                 $120,000  

Contribution margin                                                   $80,000

Fixed costs

fixed manufacturing costs                         40,000

Fixed marketing and administrative costs 20,000

Total fixed cost                                                                $60,000

Operating income                                                           $20,000

Working  for income statement above =

Contribution margin = Revenue -Total  variable cost =$200,000- ($110,000 + $10,000) - $80,000

Operating income= Contribution margin - Total fixed cost = $80,000 - $($40,000 +$20,000) -=$20,000

2  The contribution margin percentage and breakeven point in units and revenues for June 2017.

Contribution margin percentage = ,Contribution margin/ Revenue x 100%

= $80,000/ $200,000 x 100= 40 %

Contribution margin per unit = ,Contribution margin/ units sold

                                                   80,000 / 20,000= $4 per unit

Break  even point units  = Total fixed cost/ ,Contribution margin per unit

 = $60,000/ $4=  15,000units

Break even revenue=

we first calculate the selling price = Revenue / units sold = $200,000/ 20,000 =$10

Break even revenue=Break even units x per unit sold = $15,000 x $10 = $150,000.

3. Margin of safety = units sold - break even point unit

20,000 - 15,000 =5000 units

4. If the sales is 16,000 and tax is 30% , Net income is

Units sold                     16,000

Revenue                     $160,000

Contribution margin    $64,000

Total fixed cost           - $60,000

Operation income       $4,000

tax at 30 %                  - $ 1200

Net income                 $2,800

working

Revenue = units sold x sale per unit = 16,000 x $10 = $160,000

Contribution margin = Revenue x contribution margin percentage = $160,000 x 40% = $64,000

Operation income = contribution margin - fixed costs= $64,000 - $60,000 = $4000

Tax = 30% of 4000 = $1200

Net income = $4000 - $1200 = $2,800

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Sand, Inc. has outstanding $5,000,000, 10%, 20-year bonds. The bonds are callable at 104 on any interest date. The bonds were is
Ray Of Light [21]

Answer: B) A loss of $200,000 on its income statement in the year the bonds are called.

Explanation:

The bonds were issued at Par. This means they were issued at 100 of par.

The bonds are now trading at 104 of par.

If Sand Inc calls the bonds then they will make a profit (loss) of,

= 5,000,000 * 104/100

= $5,200,000

Therefore their Profit (loss) will be the bond at par minus the Calling price

= 5,000,000 - 5,200,000

= -$200,000

That means they make a loss of $200,000 in the year the bonds are called.

If you need any clarification do react or comment.

6 0
3 years ago
This exercise is built around Whole Foods Market’s financial statements from the chapter. Average common shareholders’ equity fo
uysha [10]

Answer: ROCE was 13.7% in 2012

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
If Wild Widgets, Inc., were an all-equity company, it would have a beta of 0.9. The company has a target debt-equity ratio of .4
Veronika [31]

Answer:

a. 6.5%

b. 13.06%

c. 10.91%

Explanation:

a.

Cost of debt of a bond is yield to maturity. Yield to maturity is the rate of return that a investor actually receives or a borrows actually pays on a bond. It is long term return or payment which is expressed in annual term.

Formula for yield to maturity is as follow

Yield to maturity = [ C + ( F - P ) / n ] / [ (F + P ) / 2 ]

By placing values in the formula

Assuming the bond face value is $1,000

Yield to maturity = [ (1000x7.2) + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / [ ( 1,000 + $1,090 ) / 2 ]

Yield to maturity = [ $72 + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = [ $72 - $4.5 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = $67.5 / $1,045

Yield to maturity = 6.5%

So, the cost of Debt is 6.5%

b.

As 0.9 is the unlevered beta, We need Levered beta due to restructuring of capital.

Beta Levered = Beta Unlevered x ( 1 + ( 1 - tax rate ) x Debt / Equity)

Beta Levered = 0.9 x ( 1 + ( 1 - 0.35 ) x 0.4 )

Beta Levered = 1.134

Cost of equity can be calculated using CAPM

CAPM calculated the expected return on an equity investment based on the risk free rate, market premium and risk beta of the investment.

Formula for CAPM is as follow

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market premium)

As we know the Risk premium is the difference of market return and risk free rate.

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market Return - Risk free Rate )

Ra = Rf + β ( Rm - Rf )

Ra = 4.1% + 1.134 ( 12% - 4.1% )

Ra = 13.06%

Cost of Equity is 13.06%

c.

WACC is the average cost of capital of the firm based on the weightage of the debt and weightage of the equity multiplied to their respective costs.

According to WACC formula

WACC = ( Cost of equity x Weightage of equity )+ ( Cost of debt ( 1- t) x Weightage of debt )

Placing the values in formula

If the debt to equity 0.4  the equity value should be 1 and total capital is 1.4 ( 1 + 0.4 )

WACC = ( 13.06% x 1 / 1.4 )+ ( 6.5% ( 1- 0.35) x 0.4 / 1.4 ) = 9.71% + 1.2% = 10.91%

WACC is 10.91%

4 0
3 years ago
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