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Alina [70]
2 years ago
8

Zachary Airlines is a small airline that occasionally carries overload shipments for the overnight delivery company Never-Fail,

Inc. Never-Fail is a multimillion-dollar company started by Wes Never immediately after he failed to finish his first accounting course. The company’s motto is "We Never-Fail to Deliver Your Package on Time." When Never-Fail has more freight than it can deliver, it pays Zachary to carry the excess. Zachary contracts with independent pilots to fly its planes on a per-trip basis. Zachary recently purchased an airplane that cost the company $4,636,000. The plane has an estimated useful life of 24,400,000 miles and a zero salvage value. During the first week in January, Zachary flew two trips. The first trip was a round trip flight from Chicago to San Francisco, for which Zachary paid $420 for the pilot and $370 for fuel. The second flight was a round trip from Chicago to New York. For this trip, it paid $370 for the pilot and $185 for fuel. The round trip between Chicago and San Francisco is approximately 4,300 miles and the round trip between Chicago and New York is 1,300 miles.
Required:a. Select if the costs mentioned below are direct or indirect.b. Determine the total cost of each trip. (Do not round intermediate calculations.)
Business
1 answer:
Setler79 [48]2 years ago
5 0

Answer: See explanation

Explanation:

a. Based on the information given, the direct costs are:

• Pilot Cost

• Fuel Cost.

The indirect cost is:

• Depreciation Cost

b. To know the total cost for each trip, we need to know the depreciation per mile which will be:

= $4,636,000 / 24,000,000

= 0.19

Cost for Trip 1

Pilot Cost = $420

Fuel Cost = $370

Depreciation Cost = (0.19 × 4,300) = $827

Total Cost = $1617

Trip 2

Pilot Cost = $370

Fuel Cost = $185

Depreciation Cost = (0.19 × 1,300) = $247

Total Cost = $802

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Answer:

The effect of this error on 2003 ending working capital is that it overstated the ending 2003 working capital.

The error does not have effect on the 2004 ending retained earnings balance.

Explanation:

Let the amount of the commission expense be xxxx.

At the end of 2003, the journal entries should have been as follows:

Debit Commission expense for xxxx

Credie Commission payable for xxxx

Also, we have:

Working capital = Current assets – Current liabilities ………… (1)

From equation (1), current liabilities are understated because commission payable which was not recorded is an item under current liabilities. Since the current liabilities are understated, that indicates that the working capital in equation is overstated. Therefore, the effect of this error on 2003 ending working capital is that it overstated the ending 2003 working capital.

When the 2003 commission expense in the entries above was paid in 2004, it would have been recognized as an expense. This made the error to counterbalance. This implies that the 2004 ending retained earnings balance is still correct despite that there are errors in the earnings of the two years. Therefore, the error does not have effect on the 2004 ending retained earnings balance.

4 0
2 years ago
Human capital is:________
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Answer:

Human capital is an intangible asset or quality not listed on a company's balance sheet.

Explanation:

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3 0
2 years ago
At the beginning of the year, Gonzales Corporation had $100,000 in cash. During the year, the company undertook a major expansio
hram777 [196]

Answer:

The correct answer is option (D).

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Beginning cash flow = $100,000

Operating activities generated = $300,000

Investing activities required = $800,000

End Cash = $50,000

So, we can calculate the net cash provided by company's financing activities by using following formula:

So, first we analyze Cash flow after operating activities, then

Cash flow (after operating activities ) = Beginning cash flow + Operating activities generated

= $100,000 + $300,000

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= -$400,000

Given that closing cash balance = $50,000

So, Net cash provided = $400,000 + $50,000

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3 years ago
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Phantasy [73]

Answer:

MIRR = 4.32%

Explanation:

year           cash flow

0               -$795,000

1                 $375,000

2               -$500,000

3                $600,000

4                $400,000

Since there are 2 cash outflows, the IRR calculation would result in two different answers (1 for every cash outflow), that is why we use the MIRR function in excel.

=MIRR (cash flows, finance rate, reinvestment rate)

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Since we are only given one interest rate, we will use it as our finance rate and our reinvestment rate.

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FrozenT [24]

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