The correct answer is that the variability is 2.0 times as large.
In the first set, the MAD is 1.2.
In the second set, the MAD is 0.6.
Dividing 1.2 by 0.6 gives us a factor of 2.
Yes, I will help. What do you need help with?
Its marked down $42. The SALE price is $108.00
150*.28=42
150-42=108
(6×5)×10=300 Since 6×5=30×10=300
Answer:
We have the problem:
"Clare is in charge of getting snacks for a road trip with her friends and her dog. She has
$35 to go to the store to get some supplies. The snacks for herself and her friends cost
$3.25 each, and her dog's snacks costs $9 each."
In this situation we have two variables:
X = number of snacks for herself and her friends that she buys. Each one of these costs $3.50
Y = number of snacks for her dog that she buys. Each one of these costs $9.
The total cost, in this case, can be written as:
X*$3.50 + Y*$9
And we know that she has $35 to spend, so she can spend $35 or less in the store, then we have the inequality:
X*$3.50 + Y*$9 ≤ $35
Where we defined all the quantities in the inequality.
